# GATE Aptitude Questions | GATE Aptitude

GATE Aptitude Questions

## GATE Aptitude Questions

 Question 1
The strategies that the company ________ to sell its products _________ house-to-house marketing.
 A Uses, include B Used, includes C Uses, including D Use, includes
Question 1 Explanation:
Hear If you Observer
-->The 'Company’ is singular, so ‘uses’
--> The ‘strategies’ is plural, so ‘include’
Finally
The company uses, the strategies include.
 Question 2
The boat arrived _______ dawn.
 A Under B In C On D At
Question 2 Explanation:
The boat arrived at dawn. The use of “at” is the correct collocation. Mainly enables the best option for expressing location as well as arrival at particular place or position
 Question 3
Five different books (P, Q, S, R, T) are to be arranged on a shelf. The books R and S are to be arranged first and second, respectively from the right side of the shelf. The number of different orders in which P, Q and T may be arranged is ___________.
 A 12 B 120 C 6 D 2
Question 3 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is 6
As the positions of book R & S are fixed at firts and second from right.
So The books P, Q and T can be arranged in Three possible places
So,Total Total Possible Arrangements will be 3! = 6 ways
 Question 4
When he did not come home, she _______ him lying dead on the roadside somewhere.
 A Concluded B Looked C Notice D Pictured
Question 4 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is D
When we don't know something, we draw speculation, thought, or imagination.
concluded, looked at, noticed, etc. these words are confirmation words. So the only word relating to imagination is picturising
So When he did not come home, she pictured him lying dead on the roadside somewhere.
 Question 5
It would take one machine 4 hours to complete a production order and another machine 2 hours to complete the same order. If both machines work simultaneously at their respective constant rates, the time taken to complete the same order is __________ hours.
 A 2/3 B 3/4 C 4/3 D 7/3
Question 5 Explanation:
 Question 6
The bar graph in Panel (a) shows the proportion of male and female iliterates in 2001 and 2011. The proportions of males and females in 2001 and 2011 are given in Panel (b) and (c), respectively. The total population did not change during this period. The percentage increase in the total number of litertes from 2001 to 2011 is ___________
 A 34.43 B 35.43 C 30.43 D 33.43
Question 6 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is C 30.43
Let the total population in 2001 and 2011 be 100 each
According to the Graph
Male literates Percentage in 2011=100−40=60% = 0.6
Male literates Percentage in 2001=100−50=50% = 0.5
female literates Percentage in 2011=100−40=60% = 0.6
Female literates Percentage in 2001=100−60=40% = 0.4
Take total population as x
Hear According to the Question X value will be same in both 2001 and 2011
N.O of literates in 2011= (0.5 × 0.6 × X ) + (0.5 × 0.6 × X) = 0.6X
N.O of literates in 2001 =(0.6 × 0.5 × X) + (0.4 × 0.4 × X) = 0.46X

Percentage increase in total number of literates
= ((0.6X − 0.46X) / 0.46X) × 100%
= 700/23
= 30.43
 Question 7
Four people are standing in a line facing you. They are Rahul, Mathew, Seema and Lohit. One is an engineer, one is a doctor, one a teacher and another a dancer. You are told that :

1) Mathew is not standing next to Seema

2) There are two people standing between Lohit and the engineer

3) Rahul is not a doctor

4) The teacher and the dancer are standing next to each other

5) Seema is turning to her right to speak to the doctor standing next to her

Who among them is an engineer?

 A Seema B Rahul C Lohit D Mathew
Question 7 Explanation:
 Question 8
“Indian history was written by British historians – extremely well documented and researched, but not always impartial. History had to serve its purpose: Everything was made subservient to the glory of the Union Jack. Latter-day Indian scholars presented a contrary picture.”

From the text above, we can infer that :

Indian history written by British historians _________

 A Was not well documented and researched and was always biased B Was not well documented and researched and was sometimes biased C Was well documented and researched but was sometimes biased D Was well documented and not researched but was always biased
Question 8 Explanation:
we can see starting of the paragraph that the Indian history written by British historians was extremely well documented and researched and later it is intended to say that it was sometimes biased. The sentence ‘but not always impartial’ implies that it was sometimes biased.
Other choices are irrelevant
So option (C) can be interfered from given passage.
 Question 9
Two design consultants, P and Q started working from 8 AM for a client. The client budgeted a total of USD 3000 for the consultants. P stopped working when the hour hand moved by 210 degrees on the clock. Q stopped working when the hour hand moved by 240 degrees. P took two tea breaks of 15 minutes each during her shift, but took no lunch break. Q took only one lunch break for 20 minutes, but no tea breaks. The market rate for consultants is USD 200 per hour and breaks are not paid. After paying the consultants, the client shall have USD ________ remaining in the budget.
 A 0 B 166.67 C 300 D 433.33
Question 9 Explanation:
P and Q started working from 8 A.M for a client
Total budget given = 3000 USD

P worked exactly 7 hours but took 30 min break
‘P’ working number of hours = 7 hrs - 15 mins - 15 mins = 6.5 hrs

‘Q’ worked exactly 8 hours but took 20 min break.
‘Q’ working number of hours = 7 hrs 40 mins = (7 + 2/3) hrs = 7.67 hrs

Total time that P and Q worked for = (6.5 + 7.67) hrs = 14.167 hrs

Client paying for both P and Q = USD 200/hr

After paying the consultants P and Q, the client shall have USD remaining in the budget
=3000-2834
= 166.67
 Question 10
Five people P, Q, R, S and T work in a bank. P and Q don’t like each other but have to share an office till T gets a promotion and moves to the big office next to the garden. R, who is currently sharing an office with T wants to move to the adjacent office with S, the handsome new intern. Given the floor plan, what is the current location of Q, R and T?

(O = Office, WR = Washroom)

 A B C D
Question 10 Explanation:
In this Question They are asking about Current Location of the People
P and Q are in same office
R and T are in same office and it is adjacent to S office

Option A is Eliminated because T has not yet been promoted to the big office beside garden
Option B is Eliminated because no one is sharing
Option C is also Eliminated because R and T are not sharing the office
"R, who is currently sharing an office with T" This is happening only in option D. So, Option D is correct one
 Question 11
She has a sharp tongue and it can occasionally turn _______.
 A Hurtful B Left C Methodical D Vital
Question 11 Explanation:
The given sentence means sharp tongue can cause her problem. So, "vital" and "methodical" (systematic) are not correct as they are positive words. "left" does not suit the meaning here. "hurtful" fits the sentence perfectly.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
 Question 12
 A Could have, been B Would have, being C Had, have D Had been, been
Question 12 Explanation:
Conditional tense Type 3 – Past perfect (could have) + perfect conditional (had + V3)
Hence, the correct option is (A).
 Question 13
40% of deaths on city roads may be attributed to drunken driving. The number of degree needed to represent this as a slice of a pie chart is
 A 120 B 144 C 160 D 212
Question 13 Explanation:
40% of 360o = (40/100) * 360o =144o
Therefore Number of degrees needed to represent, 40% in a pie chart is 144o
 Question 14
What is the value of
 A 2 B C D
Question 14 Explanation:
The series 1, 1/4, 1/16, 1/64,… forms a geometric progression (GP). Since it is a decreasing GP, the sum of infinite number of terms in it can be determined. Let the sum be ‘S’. We thus have to evaluate value of S.
S=1+1/4+1/16+1/64+… (1)
S/4=1/4+1/16+1/64+… (2)
Subtract (2) from (1) by shifting one term in (2) so that common terms in (1) and (2) get cancelled. We get S - (S/4)=1 as all common terms get cancelled.
So, (3/4)S=1. So, S=4/3
 Question 15
“By giving him the last _________ of the cake, you will ensure lasting __________ in our house today.”
The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are
 A peas, piece B piece, peace C peace, piece D peace, peas
Question 15 Explanation:
->Piece means ‘slice’
->Peace means ‘silence’.
 Question 16
A 1.5 m tall person is standing at a distance of 3 m from a lamp post. The light from the lamp at the top of the post casts her shadow. The length of the shadow is twice her height. What is the height of the lamp post in meters?
 A 1.5 B 3 C 4.5 D 6
Question 16 Explanation:
 Question 17
“Even though there is a vast scope for its __________, tourism has remained a/an __________ area.”
The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are
 A improvement, neglected B rejection, approved C fame, glum D interest, disinterested
Question 17 Explanation:
Option A is Correct
Even though there is a vast scope for its improvement, tourism has remained a neglected area.
Meaning: Tourism can be improved but it has been neglected
 Question 18
If the number 715?423 is divisible by 3 (? denotes the missing digit in the thousandths place), then the smallest whole number in the place of ? is _______.
 A 0 B 2 C 5 D 6
Question 18 Explanation:
Sum of digits in number is divisible by 3 then that number will be divisible by 3.
Here except ?, 7+1+5+4+2+3= 22
Now add smallest whole number into sum that will make it divisible by 3.
22+2=24 which is completely divisible by 3.
 Question 19
Two alloys A and B contain gold and copper in the ratios of 2 : 3 and 3 : 7 by mass, respectively. Equal masses of alloys A and B are melted to make an alloy C. The ratio of gold to copper in alloy C is __________.
 A 5 : 10 B 7 : 13 C 6 : 11 D 9 : 13
Question 19 Explanation:
 Question 20
Leila aspires to buy a car worth Rs. 10,00,000 after 5 years. What is the minimum amount in Rupees that she should deposit now in a bank which offers 10% annual rate of interest, if the interest was compounded annually?
 A 5,00,000 B 6,21,000 C 6,66,667 D 7,50,000
Question 20 Explanation:
Leila should deposit Rs. 6,20,921.32
In case of compounded rate of interest
A=P(1+R)t
A= Amount (cost  of car) = 10,00,000 Rs
P= Principal amount (to be calculated)
T= Time period = 5 years
R= annual rate of interest =10% (given )
We are required to calculate Principal amount P.
10,00,000=P(1+R)5
10,00,000=P(1+0.1)5
10,00,000=P(1.1)5
10,00,000=P(1.61051)
P=10,00,000/1.61051
P= 620921.32 = 6,21,000[Approximately]
Leila should deposit Rs. 6,20,921.32 to get Rs. 10,00,000/- in a period of 5 year at compounding  rate of interest 10%
P= 620921.32 = 6,21,000[Approximately]
 Question 21
A cab was involved in a hit and run accident at night.
You are given the following data about the cabs in the city and the accident.
i. 85% of cabs in the city are green and the remaining cabs are blue.
ii. A witness identified the cab involved in the accident as blue.
iii. It is known that a witness can correctly identify the cab colour only 80% of the time.
Which of the following options is closest to the probability that the accident was caused by a blue cab?
 A 12% B 15% C 41% D 80%
Question 21 Explanation:
 Question 22
A coastal region with unparalleled beauty is home to many species of animals. It is dotted with coral reefs and unspoilt white sandy beaches. It has remained inaccessible to tourists due to poor connectivity and lack of accommodation. A company has spotted the opportunity and is planning to develop a luxury resort with helicopter service to the nearest major city airport. Environmentalists are upset that this would lead to the region becoming crowded and polluted like any other major beach resorts.
Which one of the following statements can be logically inferred from the information given in the above paragraph?
 A The culture and tradition of the local people will be influenced by the tourists. B The region will become crowded and polluted due to tourism. C The coral reefs are on the decline and could soon vanish. D Helicopter connectivity would lead to an increase in tourists coming to the region.
Question 22 Explanation:
(A) The culture and tradition of the local people will be influenced by the tourists.
There is no information about the culture and tradition of local people.
No such information given that supports this option.

(B) The region will become crowded and polluted due to tourism.
suggests only one part of the paragraph.

(C) The coral reefs are on the decline and could soon vanish.
There is no information about declination of the coral reefs given in paragraph
So, this option is also discarded.

(D) Helicopter connectivity would lead to an increase in tourists coming to the region. This option can be logically inferred from the above paragraph
option (D) suggests helicopter as the connectivity means which is the crux of the paragraph.

 Question 23
The Cricket Board has long recognized John’s potential as a leader of the team. However, his on-field Temper has always been a matter of concern for them since his junior days. While this aggression has filled stadia with die-hard fans, it has taken a toll on his own batting. Until recently, it appeared that he found it difficult to convert his aggression into big scores. Over the past three seasons though, that picture of John has been replaced by a cerebral, calculative and successful batsman-captain. After many years, it appears that the team has finally found a complete captain.
Which of the following statements can be logically inferred from the above paragraph?
i. Even as a junior cricketer, John was considered a good captain.
ii. Finding a complete captain is a challenge.
iii. Fans and the Cricket Board have differing views on what they want in a captain.
iv. Over the past three seasons John was accumulated big scores.
 A (i), (ii) and (iii) only B (iii) and (iv) only C (ii) and (iv) only D (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Question 23 Explanation:
Statement (i) is not true as nowhere it is mentioned that John being a Captain at Junior level.Even as a junior cricketer, John was considered a good captain : It means that there is no provision to make senior cricketer as captain, so it is not appropriate.

Statement (ii) can be concluded from the paragraph as the last line suggests.Finding a good captain is challenging : Given that to select a good captain is difficult which concluded it is relevant to the statement.

Statement (iii) cannot be concluded from the given information as qualities seeked by selectors can be concluded but similar cannot be said about opinion of fans and viewers.

Statement (iv) can be concluded from the part in paragraph mentioning about last 3 seasons of John.Over the past three seasons, John is scoring big scores : It concluded the performance of captain, so it is relevant to the passage.

Option (C) is correct
 Question 24
The ninth and the tenth of this month are Monday and Tuesday _______.
 A Aiguratively B retrospectively C respectively D rightfully
Question 24 Explanation:
‘Respectively’ means in the same order as the people or things already mentioned
The ninth and the tenth of this month are Monday and Tuesday respectively.
 Question 25
The ninth and the tenth of this month are Monday and Tuesday _______.
 A Aiguratively B retrospectively C respectively D rightfully
Question 25 Explanation:
‘Respectively’ means in the same order as the people or things already mentioned
The ninth and the tenth of this month are Monday and Tuesday respectively.
 Question 26
It is _______ to read this year’s textbook _____ the last year’s.
 A easier, than B most easy, than C easier, from D easiest, from
Question 26 Explanation:
It is a comparative degree, so the right option is (A)
It is easier to read this year’s textbook than the last year’s.
 Question 27
A rule states that in order to drink beer one must be over 18 years old. In a bar, there are 4 people. P is 16 years old, Q is 25 years old, R is drinking milkshake and S is drinking beer. What must be checked to ensure that the rule is being followed ?
 A Only P's drink B Only P's drink and S's age C Only S's age D Only P's drink, Q's drink and S's age
Question 27 Explanation:
In this question the rule states that "in order to drink beer the person must be over 18 years of age". So we will consider the following options according to the rule:

For P it is given that his/her age is 16 years and since he/she is below 18 years of age, they cannot have beer so we have to check P's drink to see if the rule is followed.

For Q it is given that his/her age is 25 years and the rule states nothing about what anyone above 18 years cannot drink therefore there is no restriction on him/her. We do not need to check his/her drink.

For R it is given that he/she is having a milkshake. Now for milkshake also the rule puts no restriction therefore there is no need to check his/her age.

and finally for S it is given that he/she is having a beer and now since the rule clearly states that if anyone is having beer then he/she must be over 18 years of age therefore we need to check S's age.

So the correct option is Option B) We need to check P's drink and S's age
 Question 28
Fatima starts from point P, goes North for 3 km, and then East for 4km to reach point Q. She then turns to face point P and goes 15km in that direction. She then goes North for 6km. How far is she from point P, and in which direction should she go to reach point P?
 A 8km, East B 12 km, North C 6km, East D 10km, North
Question 28 Explanation:
 Question 29
500 students are taking one or more courses out of Chemistry, Physics, and Mathematics. Registration records indicate course enrolment as follows: Chemistry (329). Physics (186).
Mathematics (295). Chemistry and Physics (83), Chemistry and Mathematics (217), and Physics and Mathematics (63). How many students are taking all 3 subjects?
 A 37 B 43 C 47 D 53
Question 29 Explanation:
Method 1
There are 500 students in total.
Only Chemistry:  329 - ( 217 + 83 ) = 29
Only Mathematics :  295 - ( 217 + 63 ) = 15
Only Physics : 186 - ( 83 + 63 ) = 40
Finally :
500 - ( 29 + 15 + 40 + 83 + 63 + 217 ) = 500 - 447 = 53 students.

Method 2
Total number of students
=n(P)+n(C)+n(M)−n(P∩C)−n(P∩M)−n(C∩M)+n(P∩C∩M)
⟹500=329+295+186−217−83−63+x
=>x=53.
 Question 30
“If you are looking for a history of India, or for an account of the rise and fall of the British Raj, or for the reason of the cleaving of the subcontinent into two mutually antagonistic parts and the effects this mutilation will have in the respective section, and ultimately on Asia, you will not find it in these pages; for though I have spent a lifetime in the country, I lived too near the seat of events, and was too intimately associated with the actors, to get the perspective needed for the impartial recording of these matters.”
Which of the following statements best reflects the author‟s opinion?
 A An intimate association does not allow for the necessary perspective. B Matters are recorded with an impartial perspective. C An intimate association offers an impartial perspective. D Actors are typically associated with the impartial recording of matters.
Question 30 Explanation:
The key sentence is "I lived too near the seat of events"
An intimate association offer impartial perspesctive
Author states that he was too intimately associated with the actor to set the perspective needed fro impartial recording
 Question 31
The number of 3-digit numbers such that the digit 1 is never to the immediate right of 2 is
 A 781 B 791 C 881 D 891
Question 31 Explanation:
Source : StackExchange
We have total 900 three digit numbers from 100-999.

We have numbers in which 1 is immediate right to 2 are 210-219, 121, 221, 321, 421, 521, 621, 721, 821, 921.

So we have numbers in which 1 is never immediate right of 2 = 900 - 19 = 881 numbers
 Question 32
A contour line joins locations having the same height above the mean sea level. The following is a contour plot of a geographical region. Contour lines are shown at 25m intervals in this plot. Which of the following is the steepest path leaving from P?
 A P to Q B P to R C P to S D P to T
Question 32 Explanation:
Form the given Locations and contour lines
Path from P to Q = 575 to 500 = 75 m deep
Path from P to R = 575 to 425 = 150 m deep
Path from P to S = 575 to 525 = 25 m deep
Path from P to T = 575 to 525 = 25 m deep
Therefore P to R is the steepest path 62 among all the paths
 Question 33
Which of the following is CORRECT with respect to grammar and usage ?
Mount Everest is_________.
 A The highest peak in the world B Highest peak in the world C One of highest peak in the world D One of the highest peak in the world
Question 33 Explanation:
An adjective can exist in three forms – positive, comparative and superlative. The positive form is the base form of the adjective. The comparative form expresses a higher degree of some quality. The superlative form expresses the highest degree.
Rules for superlative degree -
https://www.englishgrammar.org/positive-comparative-superlative-degrees/
Here, Mount Everest is the highest peak in the world. Option (A) is correct.
 Question 34
The policeman asked the victim of a theft, "What did you________?”
 A loose B lose C loss D louse
Question 34 Explanation:
1. Loose means not firmly or tightly hold .
2. Lose means something lost in past .
3. Loss is present form of lose.
4. Louse means spoil or ruin something.
The policeman asked the victim of a theft, "What did you Lose ".
 Question 35
Despite the new medicine's _____in treating diabetes, it is not _____widely.
 A Effectiveness ---- prescribed B Availability ---- used C prescription--- available D Acceptance -----proscribed
Question 35 Explanation:
‘effectiveness’ is noun and ‘prescribed’ is verb. These words are apt and befitting with the word ‘medicine.’
Despite the new medicine's effectiveness in treating diabetes, it is not prescribed widely.
 Question 36
In a huge pile of apples and oranges, both ripe and unripe mixed together, 15% are unripe fruits. Of the unripe fruits, 45% are apples. Of the ripe ones, 66% are oranges. If the pile contains a total of 5692000 fruits, how many of them are apples?
 A 2029198 B 2467482 C 2789080 D 3577422
Question 36 Explanation:
Given
Total fruits → 5692000
Unripe(15%) → 853800
Ripe (85%) → 4838200

Unripe(15%)
Apples(45%) → 384210
Orange → Don′t care

Ripe (85%)
Apples (34%) → 1644988
Orange → Don′t care

Therefore Total Apples = 384210 + 1644988 = 2029198
 Question 37
A person moving through a tuberculosis prone zone has a 50% probability of becoming infected. However, only 30% of infected people develop the disease. What percentage of people moving through a tuberculosis prone zone remains infected but does not show symptoms of disease?
 A 15 B 33 C 35 D 37
Question 37 Explanation:
Probability of being infected=0.5
Probability of developing disease=0.3
Only when a person develops disease he will show symptoms of it and whenever a disease is developed we can expect symptoms to be shown.
So, Probability of not showing symptoms=1−0.3=0.7
Probability of being infected and not showing any symptoms=0.5×0.7=0.35

(or)

P(infected)=0.5,
P(No.of disease / Infected) = 0.7×0.5=0.35
 Question 38
In a world filled with uncertainty, he was glad to have many good friends. He had always assisted them in times of need and was confident that they would reciprocate. However, the events of the last week proved him wrong. Which of the following inference(s) is/are logically valid and can be inferred from the above passage? (i) His friends were always asking him to help them. (ii) He felt that when in need of help, his friends would let him down. (iii) He was sure that his friends would help him when in need. (iv) His friends did not help him last week.
 A (i) and (ii) B (iii) and (iv) C (iii) only D (iv) only
Question 38 Explanation:
The words ‘was confident that they would reciprocate’ and ‘last week proved him wrong’ lead to statements iii and iv as logically valid inferences.
Only iii and iv statements can be inferred. Option B.
 Question 39
Leela is older than her cousin Pavithra. Pavithra's brother Shiva is older than Leela.
When Pavithra and Shiva are visiting Leela, all three like to play chess. Pavithra wins more often than Leela does.
Which one of the following statements must be TRUE based on the above?
 A When Shiva plays chess with Leela and Pavithra, he often loses. B Leela is the oldest of the three. C Shiva is a better chess player than Pavithra. D Pavithra is the youngest of the three.
Question 39 Explanation:
From given data, the following arrangement is possible Shiva Leela Pavithra Among four alternatives.
Shiva > Leela >Pavithra
Pavithra is the youngest.
Option D.
 Question 40
If the value of abc is _____
 A (rqs)-1 B 0 C 1 D r+q+s
Question 40 Explanation:
Given
 Question 41
P, Q, R and S are working on a project. Q can finish the task in 25 days, working alone for 12
hours a day. R can finish the task in 50 days, working alone for 12 hours per day. Q worked 12 hours a day but took sick leave in the beginning for two days. R worked 18 hours a day on all days. What is the ratio of work done by Q and R after 7 days from the start of the project?
 A 10:11 B 11:10 C 20:21 D 21:20
Question 41 Explanation:
Q's one hour work =
R's one hour work =
Since Q has taken 2 days sick leave, he has worked only 5 days on the end of seventh day.
Work completed by Q on 7th day= (5x12)
Work completed by R on 7th day=(7x18)
Ratio of their work
=
 Question 42
Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence. The principal presented the chief guest with a ____________, as token of appreciation.
 A Momento B Memento C momentum D moment
Question 42 Explanation:
There is no such word as momento ,memento is spelled as "momento "
As Token would be a gift, hence option B would be correct answer.
 Question 43
Choose the appropriate word/phrase, out of the four options given below, to complete the following sentence: Frogs ____________________.
 A Croak B Roar C Hiss D Patter
Question 43 Explanation:
Frogs make ‘croak’ sound.
 Question 44
Choose the word most similar in meaning to the given word:
Educe
 A Exert B Educate C Extract D Extend
Question 44 Explanation:
Educe means to bring out or develop. So according to that option C would be correct

Educe: verb (used with object), educed, educing.

1. to draw forth or bring out, as something potential or latent; elicit; develop.

2. to infer or deduce.
http://www.dictionary.com/browse/educe

Most appropriate to this is extract like we extract the meaning of something (infer)

 Question 45
Operators □ , ◊ and → are defined by: Find the value (66 □ 6) → (66◊6).
 A -2 B -1 C 1 D 2
Question 45 Explanation:
 Question 46
If logx (5/7) = -1/3, then the value of x is
 A 343/125 B 125/343 C -25/49 D -49/25
Question 46 Explanation:
 Question 47
The following question presents a sentence, part of which is bold. Beneath the sentence you find four ways of phrasing the underline part. Following the requirements of the standard written English, select the answer that produces the most effective sentence.
Tuberculosis, together with its effects, ranks one of the leading causes of death in India.
 A ranks as one of the leading causes of death B rank as one of the leading causes of death C has the rank of one of the leading causes of death D are one of the leading causes of death
Question 47 Explanation:
Following standard grammatical rules, only Option A would satisfy the above statement.
Tuberculosis, together with its effects,
A) ranks as one of the leading causes of death

http://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/rank
 Question 48
Read the following paragraph and choose the correct statement.
Climate change has reduced human security and threatened human wellbeing. An ignored reality of human progress is that human security largely depends upon environmental security. But on the contrary, human progress seems contradictory to environmental security. To keep up both at the required level is a challenge to be addressed by one and all. One of the ways to curb the climate change may be suitable scientific innovations, while the other may be the Gandhian perspective on small scale progress with focus on sustainability.
 A Human progress and security are positively associated with environmental security. B Human progress is contradictory to environmental security. C Human security is contradictory to environmental security. D Human progress depends upon environmental security.
Question 48 Explanation:
After reading the above paragraph, only option B would be the correct answer.

human security largely depends upon environmental security. But on the
contrary, human progress seems contradictory to environmental security

 Question 49
Fill in the missing value
 A Fill in the Blank Type Question
Question 49 Explanation:
Middle number is the average of the numbers on both sides.(Left and Right)
Average of 6 and 4 is 5
Average of (7+4) and (2+1) is 7
Average of (1+9+2) and (1+2+1) is 8
Average of (4+1) and (2+3) is 5
Therefore, Average of (3) and (3) is 3
 Question 50
A cube of side 3 units is formed using a set of smaller cubes of side 1 unit. Find the proportion of the number of faces of the smaller cubes visible to those which are NOT visible.
 A 1 : 4 B 1 : 3 C 1 : 2 D 2 : 3
Question 50 Explanation:

Total number of cubes = 9×3 = 27
Total number of faces = 27×6 = 162
Total number of non-visible faces = 162 - 54 = 108
 Question 51
Humpty Dumpty sits on a wall every day while having lunch. The wall sometimes breaks. A person sitting on the wall falls if the wall breaks.
Which one of the statements below is logically valid and can be inferred from the above sentences?
 A Humpty Dumpty always falls while having lunch B Humpty Dumpty does not fall sometimes while having lunch C Humpty Dumpty never falls during dinner D When Humpty Dumpty does not sit on the wall, the wall does not break
Question 51 Explanation:
According to the above given passage The wall sometimes breaks. Sometimes it wont break. So Humpty Dumpty does not fall sometimes, while having lunch. This can be inferred. hence option B would be correct answer.
 Question 52
Based on the given statements, select the appropriate option with respect to grammar and usage.
Statements
(i) The height of Mr. X is 6 feet.
(ii) The height of Mr. Y is 5 feet.
 A Mr. X is longer than Mr. Y. B Mr. X is more elongated than Mr. Y C Mr. X is taller than Mr. Y. D Mr. X is lengthier than Mr. Y
Question 52 Explanation:
Tall is the term used for height
In degrees of comparison Mr. X is taller than Mr. Y is apt.
Positive degree – tall
Comparative degree – taller
Superlative degree – tallest
 Question 53
The student’s _____the teacher on teachers' day for twenty years of dedicated teaching.
 A facilitated B felicitated C fantasized D Fabricated
Question 53 Explanation:
1. Facilitated: to make easier or less difficult; help forward (an action, a process, etc.)
2. Felicitated: to compliment upon a happy event; congratulate.
3. Fantasized: to create in one's fancy, daydreams, or the like; imagine
4. Facillitated: incorrect word
The student’s felicitated the teacher on teachers' day for twenty years of dedicated teaching
 Question 54
After India's cricket world cup victory in 1985, Shrotria who was playing both tennis and cricket till then, decided to concentrate only on cricket. And the rest is history.
What does the underlined phrase mean in this context?
 A History will rest in peace B rest is recorded in history books C Rest is well known D rest is archaic
Question 54 Explanation:
The phrasal verb "rest is history" means that the later part of the story is well known
 Question 55
Given (9 inches)1/2 = (0.25 yards) 1/2, which one of the following statements is TRUE?
 A 3 inches = 0.5 yards B 9 inches = 1.5 yards C 9 inches = 0.25 yards D 81 inches = 0.0625 yards
Question 55 Explanation:

Take square on both side, we get

9 inches = 0.25 yards

Why not option (A) ?

Let me give you an example

(3m)2=9m2

It means that if number gets squared then the units also get squared. Above is an example of a square having side 3m, the area of this square would be 9m2.

Similarly,

(9 m)½ = 3 m½

Hence, if I have

(9 inches)½ = (0.25 yards)½

If I take the square root, then we get

3 inches½ = 0.5 yards½

and not 3 inches = 0.5 yards

So option (A) is wrong

 Question 56
S, M, E and F are working in shifts in a team to finish a project. M works with twice the efficiency of others but for half as many days as E worked. S and M have 6 hour shifts in a day, whereas E and F have 12 hours shifts. What is the ratio of contribution of M to contribution of E in the project?
 A 1:1 B 1:2 C 1:4 D 2:1
Question 56 Explanation:
Let the efficiency of M = 2 [ efficiency of S, E, and F]
The amount of work done by M in the project = x days × 6 hrs. ×2
The amount of work done by M in the project = 2x days × 12 hrs. ×1
The amount of work done by M: The amount of work done by M
x × 6 × 2 : 2x × 12 × 1
1 : 2 so option(b) is correct

‘M’ works with twice efficiency as E but worked for half as many days. So in this repsect they will do equal work if their shifts would have been for same timings. But M’s shift is for hrs, while E’s shift for 12 hrs. Hence E will do twice the work as M. Ratio of contribution of M : E in work, 1 : 2
 Question 57
The Venn diagram shows the preference of the student population for leisure activities.

From the data given, the number of students who like to read books or play sports is_____
 A 44 B 51 C 79 D 108
Question 57 Explanation:
From Venn diagram
= no of persons reading books =13 +44 +12 +7 = 76
= no of persons playing sports=15 + 44 + 7 +17 = 83
=51
=76+83-51=108

Another Approach
Number of students who like to read books or play sports will be the sum of students who belong to both sets
= 13 + 12 + 44 + 7 + 17 + 15 = 108.
 Question 58
Social science disciplines were in existence in an amorphous form until the colonial period when they were institutionalized. In varying degrees, they were intended to further the colonial interest. In the time of globalization and the economic rise of postcolonial countries like India, conventional ways of knowledge production have become obsolete.
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above statements?
(i) Social science disciplines have become obsolete.
(ii) Social science disciplines had a pre-colonial origin.
(iii) Social science disciplines always promote colonialism.
(iv) Social science must maintain disciplinary boundaries.
 A (ii) only B (i) and (iii) only C (ii) and (iv) only D (iii) and (iv) only
Question 58 Explanation:
Statement III is wrong as their is no mention in passage about promotion of colonialism always , only mention their interest to increase it further. "conventional ways of Knowledge production have become obsolete." this line supports statement (i) . but option B is false due to statement III .

and Statement IV are false clearly, not related to the passage. That makes option C and D false.

"Social science disciplines were in existence in an amorphous form( means without any clear form ) until the colonial period " this statement directly say Social science disciplines had a pre-colonial origin. which makes option A correct.
So, option(A) is correct
 Question 59

Two and a quarter hours back, when seen in a mirror, the reflection of a wall clock without number markings seemed to show 1:30. What is the actual current time shown by the clock?

 A 8:15 B 11:15 C 12:15 D 12:45
Question 59 Explanation:
 Question 60
M and N start from the same location. M travels 10 km East and then 10 km North-East. N travels 5 km South and then 4 km South-East. What is the shortest distance (in km) between M and N at the end of their travel?
 A 18.6 B 22.5 C 20.61 D 25
Question 60 Explanation:
 Question 61
A wire of length 340 mm is to be cut into two parts. One of the parts is to be made into a square and the other into a rectangle where sides are in the ratio of 1:2. What is the length of the side of the square (in mm) such that the combined area of the square and the rectangle is a MINIMUM?
 A 30 B 40 C 120 D 180
Question 61 Explanation:
 Question 62
An apple costs Rs. 10. An onion costs Rs. 8.
Select the most suitable sentence with respect to grammar and usage.
 A The price of an apple is greater than an onion B The price of an apple is more than onion C The price of an apple is greater than that of an onion D Apples are costlier than onions
Question 62 Explanation:
Sentence A is grammatically correct, but logically problematic. This is because A compares two unalike things: the price of the apple, and the onion itself. A price cannot be greater than an onion.

It would be correct to say "The price of an apple is greater than the price of an onion." (As you've noted, sentence C is correct, and is basically an abbreviation of the preceding sentence with "that of" used instead of "the price of" to avoid repetition.) You would use "greater than an onion" in a sentence like "An apple is greater than an onion," although this sentence is still not very good since the word "greater" isn't precise in this context. It's actually not uncommon for native speakers to produce sentences like A, and some of them might have trouble noticing what's wrong with it, but it is formally considered incorrect for the reasons I gave above.

You should be able to tell B is wrong because "onion" is in singular form, but has no article before it. While "onion" can probably be used as a mass noun in some cases (such as "Don't put too much onion in the salad"*), it doesn't make sense to compare a single apple to an unspecified mass of onion (or to compare their respective prices).

And D is definitely wrong. Though ...more costly than an onion would be fine
 Question 63
The Buddha said, “Holding on to anger is like a hot coal with the intent of throwing it at someone else; you are the one who gets burnt.”
Select the word below which is closest in meaning to the word underlined above.
 A burning B igniting C clutching D flinging
Question 63 Explanation:
Grasping means clutching or holding something tightly.
 Question 64
M has a son Q and a daughter R. He has no other children. E is the mother of P and daughter-in-law of M. How is P related to M?
 A P is the son-in-law of M B P is the grandchild of M C P is the daughter-in law of M D P is the grandfather of M
Question 64 Explanation:
Q and R are the son and Daughter of M, E is the mother of P and daughter-in-law of M Means Q and E are married couples in the family
∴ P is the grandchild of M
 Question 65
The number that least fits this set: (324, 441, 97 and 64) is _____.
 A 324 B 441 C 97 D 64
Question 65 Explanation:
182=324
212=441
82=64
X2 != 97
All the above are perfect squares but 97 is a prime number.
 Question 66
It takes 10s and 15s, respectively, for two trains travelling at different constant speeds to completely pass a telegraph post. The length of the first train is 120 m and that of the second train is 150 m. The magnitude of the difference in the speeds of the two trains (in m/s) is _____.
 A 2 B 10 C 12 D 22
Question 66 Explanation:
 Question 67
The velocity V of a vehicle along a straight line is measured in m/s and plotted as shown with respect to time in seconds. At the end of the 7 seconds, how much will the odometer reading increase by (in m)?
 A 0 B 3 C 4 D 5
Question 67 Explanation:
The odometer reading increases from starting point to end because odometer measures distance not displacement.
So, all the areas should be counted postive only.
Area of the given diagram = Odometer reading
Area of the velocity and time graph per second
1st sec triangle = 1/2 * 1 * 1= 1/2
2nd sec square = 1 × 1 = 1
3rd sec square + triangle = 1 × 1 + 1/2 × 1 × 1 = 3/2
4th sec triangle =1/2 * 1 * 2 = 1
5th sec straight line = 0
6th sec triangle = 1/2 * 1 * 1 = 1/2
7th sec triangle = 1/2 * 1 * 1 = 1/2
Total Odometer reading at 7 seconds = 1/2 + 1 + 3/2 + 1 + 0 + 1/2 + 1/2 = 5m
 Question 68
The overwhelming number of people infected with rabies in India has been flagged by the World Health Organization as a source of concern. It is estimated that inoculating 70% of pets and stray dogs against rabies can lead to a significant reduction in the number of people infected with rabies.
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above sentences?
 A The number of people in India infected with rabies is high. B The number of people in other parts of the world who are infected with rabies is low. C Rabies can be eradicated in India by vaccinating 70% of stray dogs D Stray dogs are the main sources of rabies worldwide.
Question 68 Explanation:
 Question 69
A flat is shared by four first year undergraduate students. They agreed to allow the oldest of them to enjoy some extra space in the flat. Manu is two months older than Sravan, who is three months younger than Trideep. Pavan is one month older than Sravan. Who should occupy the extra space in the flat?
 A Manu B Sravan C Trideep D Pavan
Question 69 Explanation:
Let Sravan s, Manu M, Pavan P , Trideep T
Manu is two months older than Sravan M = 2+S
Sravan, is three months younger than Trideep T =3+S=M+1
Pavan is one month older than Sravan P=1+S=M−1=T−2
From this Trideep age > Man> Pavan > Sravan
∴ Trideep can occupy the extra space in the flat
 Question 70
Find the area bounded by the lines in the first quadrant.
 A 14.95 B 15.25 C 15.7 D 20.35
Question 70 Explanation:
 Question 71
A straight line is fit to a data set (ln x, y). This line intercepts the abscissa at ln x = 0.1 and has a slope of −0.02. What is the value of y at x = 5 from the fit?
 A −0.030 B −0.014 C 0.014 D 0.030
Question 71 Explanation:
The equation of a line is
y = mx + c where m is the slope & c is the y-intercept
Now, In this question x is replaced with lnx
So, the equation of line becomes,
y = mlnx + c
or, y = -0.02lnx + c
We have given with abscissa which is essentially x-intercept. So, now we have to find ‘c’ the y-intercept.
for, y=0, lnx = 0.1 (given in the question)
Putting the value,
0 = -0.02×0.1 + c
or, c = 0.002
So, the equation of line becomes,
y = -0.02lnx + 0.002
putting x = 5 (asked in the question)
y = -0.002ln5 + 0.002 = -0.002×1.6 + 0.002 = -0.03
(ln5 = 1.6)
 Question 72
Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence?
If the athlete had wanted to come first in the race, he ___________several hours every day.
 A Should practice B Should have practised C Practised D Should be practicing
Question 72 Explanation:
Given Sentence is in past tense and to talk about something previous which already happened, We need past perfect tense
“should have practiced” is the correct choice.
 Question 73
Choose the most suitable one word substitute for the following expression
Connotation of a road or way
 A Pertinacious B Viaticum C Clandestine D Ravenous
Question 73 Explanation:
Refer: https://examples.yourdictionary.com/examples-of-connotative-words.html
1. Pertinacious  :  persistent
2. Viaticum  :  travel allowance for a journey Word origin of 'viaticum': from Latin, from viāticus belonging to a journey, from viāre to travel, from via way
3. Clandestine : kept secret
4. Ravenous : extremely hungry
• Denotation : defined meaning
• Connotation : feelings associated or inner meaning
Viaticum is the most relevant word.
 Question 74
Choose the correct verb to fill in the blank below:
Let us ______________.
 A Introvert B alternate C atheist D altruist
Question 74 Explanation:
Let us is followed by a verb.
Only ‘alternate’ is verb while all other are noun.
 Question 75
Find the missing sequence in the letter series below:
A, CD, GHI,?, UVWXY
 A LMN B MNO C MNOP D NOPQ
Question 75 Explanation:
 Question 76
If x>y>1, which of the following must be true?
(i) ln x > ln y
(ii) ex > ey
(iii) yx > xy
(iv) cos x > cos y
 A (i) and (ii) B (i) and (iii) C (iii) and (iv) D (ii) abd (iv)
Question 76 Explanation:
For whole numbers, greater the value greater will be its log value.
Same logic for power of e.
 Question 77
Ram and Shyam shared a secret and promised to each other that it would remain between them. Ram expressed himself in one of the following ways as given in the choices below.
Identify the correct way as per standard English.
 A It would remain between you and me. B It would remain between I and you C It would remain between you and I D It would remain with me.
Question 77 Explanation:
Option (A) would be the correct answer. because The objective pronoun of I is me.
Options (B) and (C) are false because "I" is incorrect usage as object, it should be "me"
Option (D) is incorrect because the secret is between them and not solely with Ram so its contradicting with the original statement.
 Question 78
In the following question, the first and the last sentence of the passage are in order and numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the passage is split into 4 parts and numbered as 2,3,4, and 5. These 4 parts are not arranged in proper order. Read the sentences and arrange them in a logical sequence to make a passage and choose the correct sequence from the given
options.
1) On Diwali, the family rises early in the morning.
2) The whole family, including the young and the old enjoy doing this,
3) Children let off fireworks later in the night with their friends.
4) At sunset, the lamps are lit and the family performs various rituals
5) Father, mother, and children visit relatives and exchange gifts and sweets.
6) Houses look so pretty with lighted lamps all around.
 A 2, 5, 3, 4 B 5, 2, 4, 3 C 3, 5, 4,2 D 4, 5, 2, 3
Question 78 Explanation:
The correct order will be 5−2−4−3.
Only this sequence makes sensible paragraph.
 Question 79
 A 1 B 1/√2 C 0 D -1
Question 79 Explanation:
 Question 80
Ms. X will be in Bagdogra from 01/05/2014 to 20/05/2014 and from 22/05/2014 to 31/05/2014. On the morning of 21/05/204, she will reach Kochi via Mumbai. Which one of the statements below is logically valid and can be inferred from the above sentences?
 A Ms. X will be in Kochi for one day, only in May B Ms. X will be in Kochi for only one day in May C Ms. X will be only in Kochi for one day in May D Only Ms. X will be in Kochi for one day in May.
Question 80 Explanation:
Second sentence says that Ms. X reaches Kochi on 21/05/2014. Also she has to be in Bagdogora on 22/05/2014.
Therefore, She stays in Kochi for only one day in may.
 Question 81
From a circular sheet of paper of radius 30cm, a sector of 10% area is removed. If the remaining part is used to make a conical surface, then the ratio of the radius and height of the cone is ________.
 A Fill in the Blank Type Question
Question 81 Explanation:
 Question 82
What is the adverb for the given word below?
Misogynous
 A Misogynouness B Misogynity C Misogynously D Misogynous
Question 82 Explanation:
Misogyny means dislike of, contempt for, or ingrained prejudice against women. It's adverb form is Misogynously
Misogynous is the hatred or dislike of women or girls.
 Question 83
Choose the appropriate word-phrase out of the four options given below, to complete the following sentence
Dhoni, as well as the other team members of India team, ______ present on the occasion
 A Were B Was C Has D Have
Question 83 Explanation:
Words joined to a singular subject by AS WELL AS, WITH takes a singular verb. So The most appropriate word out of given is 'was'. Because this sentence is singular.
 Question 84
Choose the word most similar in meaning to the given word:
Awkward
 A Inept B Graceful C Suitable D Dredfull
Question 84 Explanation:
Awkward means unsuitable and is a synonym for inept.
Dreadful is not suitable here as it means horrible and is more negative than "awkward".
Graceful and suitable are positive words and hence not applicable.
So,Among all the options Inept is the word whose meaning is similar to Awkward.
 Question 85
An electric bus has onboard instruments that report the total electricity consumed since the start of the trip as well as the total distance covered. During a single day of operation, the bust travels on stretches M, N, O and P, in that order. The cumulative distances traveled and the corresponding electricity consumption are shown in the Table below

The stretch where the electricity consumption per km is minimum is
 A M B N C O D P
Question 85 Explanation:
 Question 86
Given below are two statements followed by two conclusions. Assuming these statements to be true, decide which one logically follows.
Statements:
I. All film stars are playback singers
II. All film directors are film stars
Conclusions:
I. All film directors are playback singers.
II. Some film stars film directors.
 A Only conclusion I follow B Only conclusion II follows C Neither conclusion I nor II follows D Both conclusions I and II follows
Question 86 Explanation:
Both the conclusions follow. You can verify it by drawing venn diagram representation.

I. All film directors are playback singers ----- correct.
II. Some film stars film directors ----- correct.
 Question 87
Lamenting the gradual sidelining of the arts ill school curricula, a group of prominent artist wrote to the Chief Minister last year, asking him to allocate more funds to support arts education in schools. However, no such increases have been announced in this year’s Budget. The artists expressed their deep anguish at their request not being approved, but many of them remain optimistic about funding in the future.
Which of the statement (s) below is/are logically valid and can be inferred from the above statements?
(i) The artists expected funding for the arts to increases this year
(ii) The Chief Minister was receptive to the idea of increasing funding of the arts
(iii) The Chief Minister is a prominent artist
(iv) Schools are giving less importance to arts education nowadays
 A (iii) and (iv) B (i) and (iv) C (i), (ii) and (iv) D (i) and (iii)
Question 87 Explanation:
From first line in para its clear that schools are giving less importance to arts education. hence (iv)
However, no such increase has been announced in this year's Budget.
From this line we can infer that artists are expected funding for arts to increase this year.
 Question 88
A tiger is 50 leaps of its own behind a deer. The tiger takes 5 leaps per minute to the deer’s 4. If the tiger and the deer cover 8 meters and 5 meters per leap respectively. What distance in metres will be tiger have to run before it catches the deer?
 A 568 B 800 C 400 D 200
Question 88 Explanation:
From The Question
• A tiger is 50 leaps of its own from a deer.
• Tiger takes 5 leaps per minute.
• Deer takes 4 leaps per minute.
• Tiger covers 8 meters per leap.
• Deer covers 5 meters per leap.
Therefore, the tiger covers 5*8 = 40 meters/minute.
The deer covers 4*5 = 20 meters/minute.
Hence, the relative speed is 20 meters/minute.
The tiger is behind the deer by 50*8 = 400 meters.
Therefore, the time taken = distance/speed = 400/20 = 20 minutes.
Therefore, in the 20 minutes, the tiger will cover 20*40 = 800 meters.
 Question 89
If a2 + b2 + c2 = 1, then ab + ac + bc lies in the interval
 A [1, 2/3] B [-1/2, 1] C [–1, 1/2] D [2, –4]
Question 89 Explanation:
 Question 90
In the following sentence certain parts are underlined and marked P, Q and R. One of the parts may contain certain error or may not be acceptable in standard written communication. Select the part containing an error. Choose D as your answer if there is no error.

The student corrected all the errors (P) that the instructor marked (Q) on the answer book (R)
 A P B Q C R D No error
Question 90 Explanation:
In Q part, 'The' is not required.
 Question 91
Choose the most appropriate phrase from the options given below to complete the following sentence. The aircraft_______ take off as soon as its flight plan was filed.
 A is allowed to B will be allowed to C was allowed to D has been allowed to
Question 91 Explanation:
As the sentence is talking about past
From the given options, option C would be correct answer.

“Was” is used to denote the past continuous form. This form is used to refer to some action which was going on at some time in the past. The time of the action may or may not be indicated. For example, “She was going to the market.” This example is without a time frame, but we can also write “She was going to the market in the evening.” Here the time frame has been used.

Source :
 Question 92
• All women are entrepreneurs.
• Some women are doctors
Which of the following conclusions can be logically inferred from the above statements?
 A All women are doctors B All doctors are entrepreneurs C All entrepreneurs are women D Some entrepreneurs are doctors
Question 92 Explanation:
If all women are entreprenuers and some are doctors then obviously some entrepreneurs are doctors.
PS: In the first statement if we replace "All" by "Some", then none of the options is true.
 Question 93
Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence.
Many ancient cultures attributed disease to supernatural causes. However, modern science has largely helped _________ such notions.
 A impel B dispel C propel D repel
Question 93 Explanation:
Impel- drive to do something
Dispel – make (a doubt, feeling, or belief) disappear. दूर करना
Propel- drive something forward
Repel- drive away
 Question 94
The statistics of runs scored in a series by four batsmen are provided in the following table, Who is the most consistent batsman of these four?
 A K B L C M D N
Question 94 Explanation:
Average only gives the mean value, Standard Deviation gives how close to mean value (consistency) of a sample population distribution.
A standard deviation close to 0 means very close to mean value of a distribution.
Here K has the lowest SD (5.21)
 Question 95
What is the next number in the series?
12 35 81 173 357 ____
 A 625 B 725 C 825 D 925
Question 95 Explanation:
 Question 96
Find the odd one from the following group:
W, E, K, O, I Q, W, A F, N, T, X N, V, B, D
 A W, E, K, O B I, Q, W, A C F, N, T, X D N, V, B, D
Question 96 Explanation:
 Question 97
For submitting tax returns, all resident males with annual income below Rs 10 lakh should fill up Form P and all resident females with income below Rs 8 lakh should fill up Form Q. All people with incomes above Rs 10 lakh should fill up Form R, except non residents with income above Rs 15 lakhs, who should fill up Form S. All others should fill Form T. An example of a person who should fill Form T is
 A a resident male with annual income Rs 9 lakh B a resident female with annual income Rs 9 lakh C a non-resident male with annual income Rs 16 lakh D a non-resident female with annual income Rs 16 lakh
Question 97 Explanation:
Annual income (Male Residents)<10 L - Form P
Annual income (Female Residents) < 8L - Form Q
People ( Except NRI's) > 10 L - Form R
NRI's with income > 15 L - Form S
Others - T

A) A resident male with annual income Rs 9 lakh
Defined under first category i.e. Form P.
C) A non-resident male with annual income Rs 16 lakh
D) A non-resident female with annual income Rs 16 lakh
Both C and D fall under the category of Form S.

B) Resident female in between 8 to 10 lakhs haven’t been mentioned.So a resident female with annual income Rs 9 lakh should fill Form T.
 Question 98
A train that is 280 metres long, travelling at a uniform speed, crosses a platform in 60 seconds and passes a man standing on the platform in 20 seconds. What is the length of the platform in metres?
 A 440 B 480 C 520 D 560
Question 98 Explanation:
The train with length 280m passes by a man standing on platform in 20s.
The speed of train is V = 280/20 = 14m/s
Let the length of platform be L
(L + 280 )/60 = 14
L + 280 = 60×14
L = 840 - 280
L = 560 metres
 Question 99
The exports and imports (in crores of Rs.) of a country from 2000 to 2007 are given in the following bar chart. If the trade deficit is defined as excess of imports over exports, in which year is the trade deficit 1/5th of the exports?
 A 2005 B 2004 C 2007 D 2006
Question 99 Explanation:
Formula according to question -> (Import - Export)/Export
now we have to have solve for 1/5 which matches in 2006
 Question 100
You are given three coins: one has heads on both faces, the second has tails on both faces, and the third has a head on one face and a tail on the other. You choose a coin at random and toss it, and it comes up heads. The probability that the other face is tails is
 A 1/4 B 1/3 C 1/2 D 2/3
Question 100 Explanation:
This problem is an application of bayes' theorem.
This theorem shold be applied when the outcome is already determined .

http://mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/56622.html

so in the problem we need to calculate all possible ways a head could show up.

we have HH TH TT
probability of head showing up on the first coin is chance of first coin getting picked * chance of head showing up = 1/3 * 1 = 1/3

simlarly for the 2nd coin the probablility is 1/3 *1/2

for the 3rd since it doesnt have a head we dont really care

now to calculate the prob that the head came from the 2 nd coin applying bayes theorem
p(H) = 1/3(1/2) / 1/3 + 1/3(1/2) = 1/3
 Question 101
Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence.
Communication and interpersonal skills are_____ important in their own ways.
 A each B both C all D either
Question 101 Explanation:
Interpersonal skills are the skills we use every day when we communicate and interact with other people, both individually and in groups. They include a wide range of skills, but particularly communication skills such as listening and effective speaking. They also include the ability to control and manage your emotions.

Refer : https://www.skillsyouneed.com/interpersonal-skills.html
 Question 102
Which of the options given below best completes the following sentence? She will feel much better if she ________________.
 A will get some rest B gets some rest C will be getting some rest D is getting some rest
Question 102 Explanation:
She will feel much better if she gets some rest.

If clause (condition) - If + simple present - if she gets some rest

Main clause (result) - simple future - She will feel much better

As in all conditional sentences, the order of the clauses is not fixed. You may have to rearrange the pronouns and adjust punctuation when you change the order of the clauses, but the meaning is identical.

Refer : http://www.ef.com/english-resources/english-grammar/type-1-conditional/
 Question 103
Choose the most appropriate pair of words from the options given below to complete the following sentence.
She could not _____ the thought of _________ the election to her bitter rival.
 A bear, loosing B bare, loosing C bear, losing D bare, losing
Question 103 Explanation:
Option (C) is correct

Lose – be deprived of or cease to have. हार

Loose – not firmly or tightly fixed in place. ढीला

Bear -(of a person) carry. उठाना
Bear also means भालू – an animal, but that is not meant here
Bear means to carry (in this context)

Bare – (of a person or part of the body) not clothed or covered. नंगा

 Question 104
A regular die has six sides with numbers 1 to 6 marked on its sides. If a very large number of throws show the following frequencies of occurrence:
10.167; 20.167; 30.152; 4 0.166; 50.168; 6 0.180. We call this die
 A irregular B biased C Gaussian D insufficient
Question 104 Explanation:
For a very large number of throws, the frequency should be same for unbiased throw. As it not same, then the die is baised.
 Question 105
Fill in the missing number in the series.
2 3 6 15 ___ 157.5 630
 A 35 B 45 C 50 D 55
Question 105 Explanation:
 Question 106
Find the odd one in the following group
Q, W, Z, B    B, H, K, M     W, C, G, J    M, S, V, X
 A Q, W, Z, B B B, H, K, M C W, C, G, J D M, S, V, X
Question 106 Explanation:
Here in each option
1st letter and 2nd letter difference = 6 letters
2nd and 3rd letter diff =3 letters
3rd and 4th letter diff =2 letters

So, Ans is (C)
 Question 107
Lights of four colors (red, blue, green, yellow) are hung on a ladder. On every step of the ladder there are two lights. If one of the lights is red, the other light on that step will always be blue. If one of the lights on a step is green, the other light on that step will always be yellow. Which of the following statements is not necessarily correct?
 A The number of red lights is equal to the number of blue lights B The number of green lights is equal to the number of yellow lights C The sum of the red and green lights is equal to the sum of the yellow and blue lights D The sum of the red and blue lights is equal to the sum of the green and yellow lights
Question 107 Explanation:
According to the Question "On every step of ladder there are 2 bulbs".

"If one is Red other must be Blue". 1 pair possible = (R,B)
"If one is Green other must be Yellow". other pair of lights possible = (G,Y)

So, from the above statements, we can conclude that there will be no pair as (G,B) or (G,R) or (R,Y). But, the pair (Y,B) is a possible combination of lights in one of the ladder.

If we consider that there are 3 steps in ladder as (G,Y) , (B,Y) and (B,Y).
NONE OF THE ABOVE OPTION MATCHES (Official key was D though)
 Question 108
The sum of eight consecutive odd numbers is 656. The average of four consecutive even numbers is 87. What is the sum of the smallest odd number and second largest even number?
 A 125 B 144 C 158 D 163
Question 108 Explanation:
The sum of 8 consecutive odd numbers is 656
=>Average of the 8 odd numbers = 656/8 = 82

the odd numbers immediately preceding and succeeding 82 are 81 are 83 respectively and these will be the middle numbers.
Therefore, we see that 4th and 5th odd numbers are 81 and 83 respectively.

Thus we can easily obtain the odd numbers as 75, 77, 79, 81, 83, 85, 87, 89 and smallest odd number as 75

the average of four consecutive even numbers is 87
As seen earlier, 86 and 88 will be 2nd and 3rd even numbers.
i.e., 84, 86, 88 and 90 will be the even numbers and the second largest even number is 88

Therefore required sum is 75 + 88 = 163
 Question 109
The total exports and revenues from the exports of a country are given in the two charts shown below. The pie chart for exports shows the quantity of each item exported as a percentage of the total quantity of exports. The pie chart for the revenues shows the percentage of the total revenue generated through export of each item. The total quantity of exports of all the items is 500 thousand tonnes and the total revenues are 250 crore rupees. Which item among the following has generated the maximum revenue per kg?

 A Item 2 B Item 3 C Item 6 D Item 5
Question 109 Explanation:
 Question 110
It takes 30 minutes to empty a half-full tank by draining it at a constant rate. It is decided to simultaneously pump water into the half-full tank while draining it. What is the rate at which water has to be pumped in so that it gets fully filled in 10 minutes?
 A 4 times the draining rate B 3 times the draining rate C 2.5 times the draining rate D 2 times the draining rate
Question 110 Explanation:
Lets say capacity of tank is 1 litre
draining rate= 0.5litre/30minutes= 1/60 litre/min
let filling rate = x litre/min
in 1 min tank gets x-(1/60) litre filled.
to fill the remaining half part we need 10mins
x-1/60 litre --> 1min
0.5 litre ---> 10 mins
0.5/(x-1/60) = 10
solving, we get x= 4/60
which is 4 times more than draining rate.
 Question 111
“India is a country of rich heritage and cultural diversity.” Which one of the following facts best supports the claim made in the above sentence?
 A India is a union of 28 states and 7 union territories. B India has a population of over 1.1 billion. C India is home to 22 official languages and thousands of dialects. D The Indian cricket team draws players from over ten states.
Question 111 Explanation:
Heritage and Diversity are mainly for difference in language or culture
 Question 112
The value of one U.S. dollar is 65 Indian Rupees today, compared to 60 last year. The Indian Rupee has ____________.
 A Depressed B Depreciated C Appreciated D Stabilized
Question 112 Explanation:
Depreciated meaning diminish in value over a period of time.
Depreciated = came down
 Question 113
 A a verb B a noun C an adjective D both a verb and a noun
Question 113 Explanation:
Guidance or recommendations offered with regard to prudent future action.
Advise is a verb meaning “to give counsel to; offer an opinion or suggestion as worth following.” Advice is a noun meaning “an opinion or recommendation offered as a guide to action, conduct, etc.”
 Question 114
The next term in the series 81, 54, 36, 24 … is ________
 A 12 B 14 C 16 D 18
Question 114 Explanation:
Each number is just 2/3 of the previous number:
81 x 2/3 = 54
54 x 2/3 = 36
36 x 2/3 = 24
Therefore,
24 x 2/3 = 16
 Question 115
In which of the following options will the expression P < M be definitely true?
 A M < R > P > S B M > S < P < F C Q < M < F = P D P = A < R < M
Question 115 Explanation:
As P=A
and A < R and R < M
=> A < M
=> P < M
 Question 116
Find the next term in the sequence: 7G, 11K, 13M, ___
 A 15Q B 17Q C 15P D 17P
Question 116 Explanation:

If A→Z alphabet correspond to 1→26 numbers, we have

7G - G is the 7th alphabet
11K - K is the 11th alphabet
13M - M is the 13th alphabet

G=7, K=11, M=13

Similarly, Q=17

(B) is the only option which is correct.

 Question 117
The multi-level hierarchical pie chart shows the population of animals in a reserve forest. The correct conclusions from this information are:

(i) Butterflies are birds
(ii) There are more tigers in this forest than red ants
(iii) All reptiles in this forest are either snakes or crocodiles
(iv) Elephants are the largest mammals in this forest
 A (i) and (ii) only B (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) C (i), (iii) and (iv) only D (i), (ii) and (iii) only
Question 117 Explanation:
The given pie chart is about population of animals, not about size of animals
So, (iv) is not true
(i) is true as butterfly comes under the pie birds.
(ii) is true as the pie chart portion of tigers is more than that of red ants.
(iii) is true as the pie portion corresponding to reptiles consists of only snakes and crocodiles.
(iv) statement cannot be inferred from the pie chart
 Question 118
A man can row at 8 km per hour in still water. If it takes him thrice as long to row upstream, as to row downstream, then find the stream velocity in km per hour.
 A 2 km/hr B 4km/hr C 6km/hr D 8km/hr
Question 118 Explanation:
Speed of man (m)= 8km/h
Let the speed of stream be s

According to the question:
Speed of man upstream =S1=m−s
Speed of man downstream =S2=m+s

Speed = Distance/Time
Here, since the distance D is same

D=S1×T1
D=S2×T2

S1×T1=S2×T2

S1/S2=T2/T1=3

m+s=3(m−s)

or, 8+s=3(8−s)

⟹s=4km/h
 Question 119
A firm producing air purifiers sold 200 units in 2012. The following pie chart presents the share of raw material, labour, energy, plant & machinery, and transportation costs in the total manufacturing cost of the firm in 2012. The expenditure on labour in 2012 is Rs. 4,50,000. In 2013, the raw material expenses increased by 30% and all other expenses increased by 20%. If the company registered a profit of Rs. 10 lakhs in 2012, at what price (in Rs.) was each air purifier sold?
 A 10000 B 20000 C 30000 D 40000
Question 119 Explanation:
 Question 120
A batch of one hundred bulbs is inspected by testing four randomly chosen bulbs. The batch is rejected if even one of the bulbs is defective. A batch typically has five defective bulbs. The probability that the current batch is accepted is _________
 A 0.6145 B 0.7145 C 0.8145 D 0.9145
Question 120 Explanation:
Probability for one bulb to be non defective is
Probabilities that none of the bulbs is defectives
Binomial Problem with n = 4 and p(not defective) = 0.95
P(x = 4 non defective) = 0.95*4 = 0.8145
 Question 121
Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word underlined in the sentence below ?
In a democracy, everybody has the freedom to disagree with the government.
 A Dissent B Descent C Decent D Decadent
Question 121 Explanation:
• Dissent         - disagree
• Descent        - going down
• Decent          - conforming to acceptable standard
 Question 122
After the discussion, Tom said to me, 'Please revert!’ He expects me to _________.
 A Retract B Get back to him C Move in reverse D Retreat
Question 122 Explanation:
Revert means to get back.
'Please revert!’ He expects me to get back to him
 Question 123
While receiving the award, the scientist said, "I feel vindicated". Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word ‘vindicated’?
 A Punished B Substantiated C Appreciated D Chastened
Question 123 Explanation:
Vindicate has 2 meanings
1) Clear of blain
2) Substantiate, justify

Vindicated – show or prove to be right, reasonable, or justified. पुष्टि

 Question 124
Let  f(x,y) = xn ym =p  If x is doubled and y is halved, the new value of f is
 A B C D
Question 124 Explanation:
 Question 125
In a sequence of 12 consecutive odd numbers, the sum of the first 5 numbers is 425. What is the sum of the last 5 numbers in the sequence?
 A 295 B 395 C 455 D 495
Question 125 Explanation:

Let sequence of odd numbers is 1,3,5,7,....

We can say that suppose a sequence of odd numbers starts from an odd number a.

Then the sequence of twelve consecutive odd numbers will be..

a,a+2,a+4,a+6,a+8,a+10,a+12,a+14,a+16,a+18,a+20,a+22

Now it is given that the sum of first five consecutive odd numbers is 425.
Hence,

a+(a+2)+(a+4)+(a+6)+(a+8)=425;
5a+20=425;
5a=405;
a=81

Hence the sequence of twelve consecutive odd numbers is..

81,83,85,87,89,91,93,95,97,99,101,103

Now, the second part is easy.

The sum of last five odd numbers will be..

95+97+99+101+103= 495

 Question 126
Find the next term in the sequence: 13M,  17Q,  19S,  ___ ?
 A 21W B 21V C 23W D 23V
Question 126 Explanation:
If A→Z alphabet correspond to 1→26 numbers, we have
13th alphabet M
17th alphabet Q
19th alphabet S
23th alphabet W
Only option(C) which is correct.
 Question 127
If ‘KCLFTSB’ stands for ‘best of luck’ and ‘SHSWDG’ stands for ‘good wishes’, which of the following indicates ‘ace the exam’?
 A MCHTX B MXHTC C XMHCT D XMHTC
Question 127 Explanation:

Remove the Vowels and Read from backward

Best of luck
Reverse order without vowels: KCLFTSB

Good Wishes
Reverse order without vowels: SHSWDG

Ace the exam
Reverse order without vowels: MXHTC
 Question 128
Industrial consumption of power doubled from 2000-2001 to 2010-2011. Find the annual rate of increase in percent assuming it to be uniform over the years.
 A 5.6 B 7.2 C 10 D 12.2
Question 128 Explanation:
 Question 129
A five-digit number is formed using the digits 1,3,5,7 and 9 without repeating any of them. What is the sum of all such possible five digit numbers?
 A 6666660 B 6666600 C 6666666 D 6666606
Question 129 Explanation:
Assume that any digit is in fixed position, then the remaining four digits can be arranged in 4! = 24 ways.
So, each of the 5 digit will appear in each of the five places 24 times. So, the sum of the digits in each position is 24(1+3+5+7+9) = 600
The sum of all such numbers will be 600(1 + 10 + 100 + 1000 + 10000) = 6666600
 Question 130
Choose the grammatically CORRECT sentence:
 A Two and two add four. B Two and two become four. C Two and two are four. D Two and two make four.
Question 130 Explanation:
According to Subject Verb Concord rules of English Language, we use a Plural Verb in case of addition, and in case of multiplication, a Singular Verb is to be used.
Eg:
4 times 2 makes 8.(multiplication)
Therefore, two and two make four. (Addition)
2 multiplied by 2 also gives 4, and herein lies the trick of the question. It is safer to use make because the addition is more popular of an example.
 Question 131
Statement: You can always give me a ring whenever you need.
Which one of the following is the best inference from the above statement?
 A Because I have a nice caller nine. B Because I have a better telephone facility. C Because a friend in need is a friend indeed. D Because you need not pay towards the telephone bills when you give me a ring.
Question 131 Explanation:
You can always give me a ring whenever you need. Because a friend is need is a friend indeed
This means that I am always available if you need any help.
 Question 132
In the summer of 2012, in New Delhi, the mean temperature of Monday to Wednesday was 41 °C and of Tuesday to Thursday was 43 °C. If the temperature on Thursday was 15% higher than that of Monday, then the temperature in °C on Thursday was
 A 40 B 43 C 46 D 49
Question 132 Explanation:
Let the temperature on Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday be respectively as TM, TTU, TW, TTH,
So, from the given data we have
The mean temperature of Monday to Wednesday was 41oC => (M+T+W)/3 = 41
...(1)
The mean temperature of Tuesday to Thursday was 43oC=> (T+W+Th)/3 = 43
and ...(2)
Also, as the temperature on Thursday was 15% higher than that of Monday
i.e., …(3)
After Solving The above equations (1), (2) and (3) we obtain

Hence correct option is C.
 Question 133
Complete the sentence:
Dare ___ mistakes.
 A commit B to commit C committed D committing
Question 133 Explanation:
Dare to commit mistakes is the correct sentence. because
Dare means "have the courage to" and "to" is implied here. Hence correct option is B.
 Question 134
They were requested not to quarrel with others.
Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word quarrel?
 A make out B call out C dig out D fall out
Question 134 Explanation:
They were requested not to quarrel with others. Quarrel has a similar meaning to ‘fall out’
Make out - make progress
Call out - to shout something
Dig out - to get something out of a place
 Question 135
A car travels 8 km in the first quarter of an hour, 6 km in the second quarter and 16 km in the third quarter. The average speed of the car in km per hour over the entire journey is
 A 30 B 36 C 40 D 24
Question 135 Explanation:
This is a simple formula based one.
Average speed = total distance/ total time
Total distance = 8+6+16 = 30 km
Total time taken = 3 quarters of an hour = ¾ hr
Average speed = total distance/ total time = 30/(3/4) = 40 kmph
 Question 136
Find the sum to n terms of the series 10 + 84 + 734 + ……
 A B C D
Question 136 Explanation:
Check from the options by substituting n = 1,2…
For n=1, all options are right
For n=2, sum must be 10+84=94.
Only option D is correct for this

Formal Way

 Question 137
Statement: There were different streams of freedom movements in colonial India carried out by the moderates, liberals, radicals, socialists, and so on.
Which one of the following is the best inference from the above statement?
 A The emergence of nationalism in colonial India led to our Independence. B Nationalism in India emerged in the context of colonialism. C Nationalism in India is homogeneous. D Nationalism in India is heterogeneous.
Question 137 Explanation:
As the given argument states that there were different streams of freedom movement during colonialism, it clearly implies that nationalism in India is heterogeneous.
Option (C) is ruled out as it states the contrary
options (A) and (B) fail to establish a direct link with the argument.
option(D) is correct because It is clearly mentioned that the movement comprised of moderates, liberals, radicals, socialists and so on.
 Question 138
The set of values of p for which the roots of the equations 3x2 + 2x + p(p – 1) = 0 are of opposite sign is
 A (–∞, 0) B (0, 1) C (1, ∞) D (0, ∞)
Question 138 Explanation:
Let one root is α. So, second root will be −α.
∴ Sum of roots = α−α = 0
∴ Product of roots = −α2
It means product of roots is less than 0.
Product of roots in the given equation is p(p−1)/3.
∴p(p−1)/3 < 0
⇒(p(p−1)) <0
∴p∈[0,1]
 Question 139
What is the chance that a leap year, selected at random, will contain 53 Saturdays?
 A 2/7 B 3/7 C 1/7 D 5/7
Question 139 Explanation:
In a leap year, there are 366 days So, 52 weeks will have 52 saturdays and for remaining two days (366 – 52 × 7 = 2).
We can have the following combinations
The remaining 2 days can be:
(i) Sunday and Monday
(ii) Monday and Tuesday
(iii) Tuesday and Wednesday
(iv) Wednesday and Thursday
(v) Thursday and Friday
(vi) Friday and Saturday
(vii) Saturday and Sunday.
Clearly, there are seven elemetary events associated with this random experiment,
Let A be the event that a leap year has 53 Sundays.
Clearly, the event A will happen if the last two days of the leap year are either Sunday and Monday or Saturday and Sunday.
∴ Favourable number of elementary events = 2
Hence, required probability = 2/7
 Question 140
If (1.001)1259 = 3.52 and (1.001)2062 = 7.85, then (1.001)3321 =
 A 2.23 B 4.33 C 11.37 D 27.64
Question 140 Explanation:
Given
(1.001)1259 = 3.52
(1.001)2062 = 7.85

Then

Hence (1.001)3321 = 27.632 ≈ 27.64
 Question 141
Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following sentence:
If the tired soldier wanted to lie down, he ___ the mattress out on the balcony.
 A should take B shall take C should have taken D will have taken
Question 141 Explanation:
If the tired soldier wanted to lie down, he should have taken the mattress out on the balcony.
 Question 142
Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence:
Given the seriousness of the situation that he had to face, his__was impressive.
 A beggary B nomenclature C jealousy D nonchalance
Question 142 Explanation:
Option A - 'beggary' is 'poverty' and wont suit in the given situation.
Option B -'nomenclature' is 'process of naming' is irrelevant.
Option C -'jealousy' is also irrelevant in the given situation.
Option D -'nonchalance' is 'casualness' and fits here.
 Question 143
Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below?
Latitude
 A Eligibility B Freedom C Coercion D Meticulousness
Question 143 Explanation:
Latitude word to describe how much freedom you have in making choices.
For example, if a teacher gives you latitude in writing your paper, you might get to choose the topic and how many sources to include.
Source: https://www.vocabulary.com/dictionary/latitude
 Question 144
One of the parts (A, B, C, D) in the sentence given below contains an ERROR. Which one of the following is INCORRECT?
I requested that he should be given the driving test today instead of tomorrow.
 A requested that B should be given C the driving test D instead of tomorrow
Question 144 Explanation:
Given sentence is in Reported speech so 'should be given' part is correct.
'Requested that' point should be modified
Instead of Request, words like 'suggested', 'recommended' can be introduced.
 Question 145
One of the legacies of the Roman legions was discipline. In the legions, military law prevailed and discipline was brutal. Discipline on the battlefield kept units obedient, intact and fighting, even when the odds and conditions were against them.
Which one of the following statements best sums up the meaning of the above passage?
 A Thorough regimentation was the main reason for the efficiency of the Roman legions even in adverse circumstances. B The legions were treated inhumanly as if the men were animals. C Discipline was the armies' inheritance from their seniors. D The harsh discipline to which the legions were subjected to led to the odds and conditions being against them.
Question 145 Explanation:
Thorough regimentation was the main reason for the efficiency of the Roman legions even in adverse circumstances. As the author says, 'Discipline on the battlefield kept units obedient, intact and fighting, even when the odds and conditions were against them.'
So Option(A) emerges as the best answer option.

We have been asked to summarize the paragraph in the best possible manner.
Option (C) presents one-sided picture of the paragraph. Summary is the essence or the gist of the paragraph.
Option (B) and Option (D) are wrong as per the information mentioned in the paragraph.
 Question 146
Raju has 14 currency notes in his pocket consisting of only Rs. 20 notes and Rs. 10 notes. The total money value of the notes is Rs. 230. The number of Rs. 10 notes that Raju has is
 A 5 B 6 C 9 D 10
Question 146 Explanation:
Let the number of Rs 20 notes be ‘x’
Rs. 10 notes be 'y' respectively.
x+y = 14 ---(1)
20x+10y = 230 ---(2)
As we need y, let us eliminate x.
(1) * 20 => 20x+20y = 280 ---(3)
(3)-(2) => 10y = 50 => y = 5
Hence number of Rs. 10 notes are 5.
 Question 147
There are eight bags of rice looking alike, seven of which have equal weight and one is slightly heavier. The weighing balance is of unlimited capacity. Using this balance, the minimum number of weighings required to identify the heavier bag is
 A 2 B 3 C 4 D 8
Question 147 Explanation:
This is a good one and needs extension of our thought process.
Most general mistake done here is dividing all the eight bags in to 2 lots of four each, weighing them by placing each lot on one of the two sides of the balance. This makes us to identify the lot with heavier bag. Now we came down to 4 bags from 8 bags. Repeat this process for two lots, each lot containing two bags. Then we will come down to two bags and one more iteration of the process gives us the final result of finding the odd bag out. This process involves three stages of weighing which is not the minimum possible one.
Right approach:
a Keep two bags aside and consider two lots of three bags each and weigh them.
Case-I
Unequal weighing results in identifying that the odd one is in those six bags. Then we will be left with three bags with in which one is the odd bag. Then keeping one bag aside, and considering two lots of one bag each and weighing them will give us the final answer. So this involves two stages of weighing.
Case-II
Unequal weighing results in identifying that the odd one is in those two bags, which are kept aside. Then we will proceed with weighing of those two bags and be getting final answer. So this involves two stages of weighing only.
 Question 148
The data given in the following table summarizes the monthly budget of an average household.

The approximate percentage of the monthly budget NOT spent on savings is
 A 10% B 14% C 81% D 86%
Question 148 Explanation:

Budget not spent on savings = 4000+1200+2000+1800 = 9000
Total Budget = 9000+1500 = 10500
Percentage of the monthly budget not spent on savings

 Question 149
A and B are friends. They decide to meet between 1 PM and 2 PM on a given day. There is a condition that whoever arrives first will not wait for the other for more than 15 minutes. The probability that they will meet on that day is
 A 1/4 B 1/16 C 7/16 D 9/16
Question 149 Explanation:
This is a typical uniform distribution problem in probability. As the given waiting interval is 15 minutes, divide the total time of 1 hour in to 45 minutes and 15 minutes respectively.

Case-I: A arrives first
If A arrives in the interval 12:00 to 12:45, then B must arrive within 15 minutes of A’s arrival. The probability of meeting can be found out by considering double definite integral, with limits (0 to 45) and (x to x+15). The probability density for each A and B is 1/60 and 1/60 respectively. By considering these probability densities and finding out the integral under the above-mentioned limits, we get the probability in this part as 3/16.

If A arrives in the interval 12:45 to 13:00, then B must arrive before 13:00. The probability of meeting can be found out by considering double definite integral, with limits (45 to 60) and (x to 60). By considering the probability densities (1/60 and 1/60 for each A and B) and finding out the integral under the above-mentioned limits, we get the probability in this part as 1/32.

Summing up the two parts, the probability in the Case-I = 3/16 + 1/32 = 7/32

Case-II: B arrives first
Going by the same logic as mentioned in the Case-I, we get
Probability in the Case-II = 7/32

Summing up the two cases, the probability = 7/32 + 7/32 = 7/16

credits : Vemuri
 Question 150
Choose the part of the sentence in which there is an error. If there is no error in any part, the answer is ‘No error’.
His house (A)/ is besides (B)/ the post office.(C)/ No error (D)
 A His house B is besides C the post office D No error
Question 150 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is B
Beside is a preposition that means nearby; at the side of. Besides is an adverb and a preposition and means in addition to; as well and apart from. Here the preposition is required hence besides in part B should be changed to beside. The correct answer is option B.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 151
Choose the part of the sentence in which there is an error. If there is no error in any part, the answer is ‘No error’.
The judge(A)/pardoned him (B)/for his rudeness. (C)/ No error (D)
 A The judge B pardoned him C for his rudeness. D No error
Question 151 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is D
The given sentence is grammatically correct. Hence there is no error in the sentence. So, option D is correct.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 152
Choose the part of the sentence in which there is an error. If there is no error in any part, the answer is ‘No error’.
Either of (A)/ these four books (B)/ is useful. (C)/ No error (D)
 A Either of B these four books C is useful. D No error
Question 152 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is A
Since there are four books, so “either” can’t be used.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 153
Choose the part of the sentence in which there is an error. If there is no error in any part, the answer is ‘No error’.
He will (A)/ bake a cake(B)/ today in the evening. (C)/ No error (D)
 A He will B bake a cake C today in the evening. D No error
Question 153 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is D
There is no error. The sentence is grammatically correct.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 154
Choose the word which is nearest in meaning to the underlined word.
Entice
 A chide B attempt C taunt D tempt
Question 154 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is D
Entice- attract or tempt by offering pleasure or advantage.
Chide- scold or rebuke.
Taunt- a remark made in order to anger, wound, or provoke someone.
Tempt- entice or try to entice (someone) to do something that they find attractive but know to be wrong or unwise.
It is clear that ‘tempt’ is the nearest to ‘entice’ in meaning. Hence option D is correct.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 155
Choose the word which is nearest in meaning to the underlined word.
Enthusiast
 A devotee B renowned C critic D detractor
Question 155 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is A
Enthusiast- a person who is very interested in a particular activity or subject
Devotee- a person who is very interested in and enthusiastic about someone or something
Renowned- known or talked about by many people; famous
Critic- a person who expresses an unfavourable opinion of something
Detractor- a person who disparages someone or something
It is clear that ‘devotee’ is the synonym for ‘enthusiast’. Hence option A is correct.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 156
Choose the word which is nearest in meaning to the underlined word.
Abdicate
 A take on B renounce C accept D accede to
Question 156 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is B
Abdicate- (of a monarch) renounce one's throne
Renounce- formally declare one's abandonment of (a claim, right, or possession)
Accede- agree to a demand, request, or treaty
Out of the given options only ‘renounce’ has the similar meaning to ‘abdicate’. Hence, option B is correct.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 157
Choose the word which is nearest in meaning to the underlined word.
Impede
 A hinder B reckless C impulsive D incapable
Question 157 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is A
Impede- delay or prevent (someone or something) by obstructing them
Hinder- make it difficult for (someone) to do something or for (something) to happen
Reckless- heedless of danger or the consequences of one's actions; rash or impetuous
Impulsive- acting or done without forethought
Incapable- unable to do or achieve (something)
The words ‘impede’ and ‘hinder’ have similar meanings. Hence option A is correct.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 158
Choose the word that is nearest opposite in meaning to the underlined word.
Interdict
 A ban B prohibit C permit D continue
Question 158 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is C
Interdict- an authoritative prohibition, in particular
‘Interdict’ has the sense of prohibition and the opposite of prohibition is ‘permit’. Hence option C is correct.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 159
Choose the word that is nearest opposite in meaning to the underlined word.
Impeccable
 A flawless B faultless C unsmirched D sinful
Question 159 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is D
Impeccable- in accordance with the highest standards; faultless or flawless
Unsmirched- to discolor, to make dirty
Sinful- wicked and immoral; committing or characterized by the committing of sins
The option A and B are the synonym of impeccable and option C is totally unrelated to it. Hence only option D can be the correct answer as it is an antonym of ‘impeccable’.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 160
Choose the word that is nearest opposite in meaning to the underlined word.
Svelte
 A graceful B slim C slender D awkward
Question 160 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is D
Svelte- (of a person) slender and elegant
Slender- (of a person or part of the body) gracefully thin
Svelte and options A, B, C carry similar meanings. ‘Awkward’ is opposite of elegant and graceful. Hence option D is correct.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 161
Choose the word that is nearest opposite in meaning to the underlined word.
Callous
 A kind B heartless C cruel D soulless
Question 161 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is A
Callous- showing or having an insensitive and cruel disregard for others
Except option A all of them have similar meanings and kind is opposite of callous. Hence option A is correct.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 162
The first and the last part of the sentences are given below and marked as (SI) and (S6). The remaining sentence is broken into four parts labeled (P), (Q), (R) and (S). Arrange these parts so as to form a complete meaningful sentence and accordingly choose the correct combination.
(S1) At the end of lecture
(P) for sparing their valuable time
(Q) the speaker thanked the audience
(R) and listening to him
(S) in coming to the meeting
(S6) patiently.
 A (P), (S), (R), (Q) B (R), (S), (P), (Q) C (S), (R), (Q), (P) D (Q), (P), (S), (R)
Question 162 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is D
The verb thanked takes the preposition for, so it means that P will come immediately after Q. This combination is only present in option D. hence it is the correct answer.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 163
The first and the last part of the sentences are given below and marked as (SI) and (S6). The remaining sentence is broken into four parts labeled (P), (Q), (R) and (S). Arrange these parts so as to form a complete meaningful sentence and accordingly choose the correct combination.
(S1) The district collector
(P) the next of kin
(Q) would be provided to
(R) announced that financial assistance
(S) of the deceased
(S6) from the Chief Minister’s Relief Fund.
 A (R), (Q), (P), (S) B (P), (S), (R), (Q) C (Q), (S), (P), (R) D (S), (Q), (R), (P)
Question 163 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is A
The sentence is about the provision of financial assistance to the family of the deceased (dead).
S1 carries the subject "the district collector", and must be followed by the action performed by him. Thus, R comes next. Q follows logically. P comes after Q as it mentions the recepient of the financial assistance. S follows as the kins belong to the deceased. Thus, the correct sequesnce is RQPS.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 164
The first and the last part of the sentences are given below and marked as (SI) and (S6). The remaining sentence is broken into four parts labeled (P), (Q), (R) and (S). Arrange these parts so as to form a complete meaningful sentence and accordingly choose the correct combination.
(S1) The films of today are
(P) not very instructive
(Q) that were produced
(R) and entertaining
(S) compared to the ones
(S6) in the 1950s.
 A (P), (Q), (R), (S) B (P), (R), (S), (Q) C (S), (R), (Q), (P) D (Q), (S), (R), (P)
Question 164 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is B
In the given option R can only come after P as it begins with ‘and’ and there is an adjective after it. As we know that and connect two similar words and only P have adjective in it. PR combination is only present in option B. Hence it is the correct answer.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 165
The first and the last part of the sentences are given below and marked as (SI) and (S6). The remaining sentence is broken into four parts labeled (P), (Q), (R) and (S). Arrange these parts so as to form a complete meaningful sentence and accordingly choose the correct combination.
(S1) People are not aware
(P) that for good rains
(Q) trees should be saved
(R) and for a balanced climate
(S) of the fact
(S6) and forests protected.
 A (S), (P), (R), (Q) B (P), (Q), (S), (R) C (S), (Q), (P), (R) D (R), (Q), (S), (P)
Question 165 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is A
After the word ‘aware’, the preposition ‘of’ is used. So, it is clear that the sentence will begin with S. ‘That’ is the conjunction that should come after the fact as it is the only word here that can connect two clauses. Hence option A is correct.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 166
Complete the sentences by choosing the correct word / phrase from the choices given below.
If they came, we __________ go.
 A will B had C would D may
Question 166 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is C
If clause mostly takes would with it or in other words ‘if…would’ is a commonly used structure in English. Hence option C is correct.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 167
Complete the sentences by choosing the correct word / phrase from the choices given below.
Take this tram and ________ at the third stop.
 A get in B get on C get off D get up
Question 167 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is C
The person is clearly indication to leave the tram at the third stop. For this idea get off is the only correct choice out of the given options. Hence option C is correct.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 168
Complete the sentences by choosing the correct word / phrase from the choices given below.
I am feeling ________ better today.
 A rather B fair C too D quite
Question 168 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is D
The blank requires a word which can modify better and out of the given option only ‘quite’ can do that. Hence option D is correct.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 169
Complete the sentences by choosing the correct word / phrase from the choices given below.
If he had studied seriously, he __________ the university.
 A would top B will have topped C would have topped D may have topped
Question 169 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is C
For the past subjunctive clauses, we use the structure ‘would have + V3’. The first clause is starting with an imaginary situation in past so the next clause will follow the past subjunctive structure. Hence option C is correct.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 170
Replace the underlined word in the following paragraph by an appropriate word / phrase from the options given to improve the paragraph. During the period of training, we were put through a lot of mental disturbance. The instructor would throw questions at us and wanted us to answer them immediately.
 A shown B subjected to C displayed D place
Question 170 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is B
Put through means to make someone do or experience something difficult or unpleasant and the only phrase that can replace it is ‘subjected to’ as it means bring upon oneself. Hence option B fits in the context well. So it is the correct answer.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 171
Replace the underlined word in the following paragraph by an appropriate word / phrase from the options given to improve the paragraph. During the period of training, we were put through a lot of mental disturbance. The instructor would throw questions at us and wanted us to answer them immediately.
 A turmoil B problems C depression D sorrow
Question 171 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is A
The word disturbance can be replaced by the word turmoil as it means a state of great disturbance, confusion, or uncertainty. Hence option A is correct.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 172
Replace the underlined word in the following paragraph by an appropriate word / phrase from the options given to improve the paragraph. During the period of training, we were put through a lot of mental disturbance. The instructor would throw questions at us and wanted us to answer them immediately.
 A send B launch C hurl D ask
Question 172 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is C
Here the word throw can be replaced by hurl which means throw or impel (someone or something) with great force. This replacement fits in the context and it is also improving the sentence. Hence option C is correct.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 173
Replace the underlined word in the following paragraph by an appropriate word / phrase from the options given to improve the paragraph.
While the lion gazed on our silent faces, we tried to avoid it. It knew, maybe, that we were scared by it.
 A against B at C upon D over
Question 173 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is B
Gazed on and gaze at has similar meaning. So the preposition on can be replaced by at here. Hence option B is correct.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 174
Replace the underlined word in the following paragraph by an appropriate word / phrase from the options given to improve the paragraph.
While the lion gazed on our silent faces, we tried to avoid it. It knew, maybe, that we were scared by it.
 A from B with C at D of
Question 174 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is D
The preposition ‘of’ is generally used with scared. So here the preposition by can be replaced with ‘of’. Hence option D is correct.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 175
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions choosing the correct answer from the options given below.
Alfred Bernhard Nobel, a Swedish inventor and philanthropist, bequeathed most of his vast fortune in trust as a fund from which annual prizes could be awarded to individuals and organizations who had brought about the greatest benefit to humanity in a particular year. Originally, there were six classifications for outstanding contributions designated in Nobel’s will including chemistry, physics, physiology or medicine, literature and international peace.
The prizes are administered by the Nobel foundation in Stockholm. In 1969, a prize for economics endowed by the Central Bank of Sweden was added. Candidates for the prizes must be nominated in writing by a qualified authority in the field of competition. Recipients in physics, chemistry and economics are selected by the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences ; in physiology or medicine by the Caroline Institute; in literature by the Swedish Academy; and in peace by the Norwegian Nobel Committee appointed by Norway’s parliament. The prizes are usually presented in Stockholm on December 10, with the King of Sweden officiating, an appropriate tribute to Alfred Nobel on the anniversary of his death. Each one includes a gold medal, a diploma and a cash award of about one million dollars.
What does this passage mainly discuss?
 A Alfred Bernhard Nobel B The Nobel Prizes C Great contribution to mankind D Swedish philanthropy
Question 175 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is B
The passage is about the history of the Nobel Prizes and how it had started. So it can be said that the main topic of the passage is the Nobel Prize. Hence option B is correct.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 176
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions choosing the correct answer from the options given below.
Alfred Bernhard Nobel, a Swedish inventor and philanthropist, bequeathed most of his vast fortune in trust as a fund from which annual prizes could be awarded to individuals and organizations who had brought about the greatest benefit to humanity in a particular year. Originally, there were six classifications for outstanding contributions designated in Nobel’s will including chemistry, physics, physiology or medicine, literature and international peace.
The prizes are administered by the Nobel foundation in Stockholm. In 1969, a prize for economics endowed by the Central Bank of Sweden was added. Candidates for the prizes must be nominated in writing by a qualified authority in the field of competition. Recipients in physics, chemistry and economics are selected by the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences ; in physiology or medicine by the Caroline Institute; in literature by the Swedish Academy; and in peace by the Norwegian Nobel Committee appointed by Norway’s parliament. The prizes are usually presented in Stockholm on December 10, with the King of Sweden officiating, an appropriate tribute to Alfred Nobel on the anniversary of his death. Each one includes a gold medal, a diploma and a cash award of about one million dollars.
Why are the awards presented on December 10?
 A It is a tribute to the king of Sweden. B Alfred Bernhard Nobel died on that day. C That date was established in Alfred’s will. D The Central Bank of Sweden administers the trust.
Question 176 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is B
The last line of the passage clearly says that “The prizes are usually presented in Stockholm on December 10, with the King of Sweden officiating, an appropriate tribute to Alfred Nobel on the anniversary of his death”. We can infer that Nobel died on 10th Dec. Hence option B is correct.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 177
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions choosing the correct answer from the options given below.
Alfred Bernhard Nobel, a Swedish inventor and philanthropist, bequeathed most of his vast fortune in trust as a fund from which annual prizes could be awarded to individuals and organizations who had brought about the greatest benefit to humanity in a particular year. Originally, there were six classifications for outstanding contributions designated in Nobel’s will including chemistry, physics, physiology or medicine, literature and international peace.
The prizes are administered by the Nobel foundation in Stockholm. In 1969, a prize for economics endowed by the Central Bank of Sweden was added. Candidates for the prizes must be nominated in writing by a qualified authority in the field of competition. Recipients in physics, chemistry and economics are selected by the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences ; in physiology or medicine by the Caroline Institute; in literature by the Swedish Academy; and in peace by the Norwegian Nobel Committee appointed by Norway’s parliament. The prizes are usually presented in Stockholm on December 10, with the King of Sweden officiating, an appropriate tribute to Alfred Nobel on the anniversary of his death. Each one includes a gold medal, a diploma and a cash award of about one million dollars.
The word “will” in line 5 refers to
 A Nobel’s wishes B A legal document C A future intention D A free choice
Question 177 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is B
‘Will’ is a legal document which a person writes to give all his belongings to the persons he wants or desires. Hence option B is correct.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 178
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions choosing the correct answer from the options given below.
Alfred Bernhard Nobel, a Swedish inventor and philanthropist, bequeathed most of his vast fortune in trust as a fund from which annual prizes could be awarded to individuals and organizations who had brought about the greatest benefit to humanity in a particular year. Originally, there were six classifications for outstanding contributions designated in Nobel’s will including chemistry, physics, physiology or medicine, literature and international peace.
The prizes are administered by the Nobel foundation in Stockholm. In 1969, a prize for economics endowed by the Central Bank of Sweden was added. Candidates for the prizes must be nominated in writing by a qualified authority in the field of competition. Recipients in physics, chemistry and economics are selected by the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences ; in physiology or medicine by the Caroline Institute; in literature by the Swedish Academy; and in peace by the Norwegian Nobel Committee appointed by Norway’s parliament. The prizes are usually presented in Stockholm on December 10, with the King of Sweden officiating, an appropriate tribute to Alfred Nobel on the anniversary of his death. Each one includes a gold medal, a diploma and a cash award of about one million dollars.
A Nobel Prize would not be given to
 A an author who wrote a novel B a doctor who discovered a vaccine C a composer who wrote a symphony D a diplomat who negotiated a peace settlement
Question 178 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is C
According to the passage a Nobel prize can be given in the fields of chemistry, physics, physiology or medicine, literature, international peace and economics (from 1969) but there is no Nobel prize in the field of music. Hence a composer who wrote a symphony can’t be given a Nobel Prize. So option C is correct.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 179
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions choosing the correct answer from the options given below.
Alfred Bernhard Nobel, a Swedish inventor and philanthropist, bequeathed most of his vast fortune in trust as a fund from which annual prizes could be awarded to individuals and organizations who had brought about the greatest benefit to humanity in a particular year. Originally, there were six classifications for outstanding contributions designated in Nobel’s will including chemistry, physics, physiology or medicine, literature and international peace.
The prizes are administered by the Nobel foundation in Stockholm. In 1969, a prize for economics endowed by the Central Bank of Sweden was added. Candidates for the prizes must be nominated in writing by a qualified authority in the field of competition. Recipients in physics, chemistry and economics are selected by the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences ; in physiology or medicine by the Caroline Institute; in literature by the Swedish Academy; and in peace by the Norwegian Nobel Committee appointed by Norway’s parliament. The prizes are usually presented in Stockholm on December 10, with the King of Sweden officiating, an appropriate tribute to Alfred Nobel on the anniversary of his death. Each one includes a gold medal, a diploma and a cash award of about one million dollars.
Why were prizes named for Alfred Bernhard Nobel?
 A He left money in his will to establish a fund for the prizes. B He won the first Nobel prize for his work in philanthropy. C He is now living in Sweden. D He serves as chairman of the committee to choose the recipients of the prizes.
Question 179 Explanation:
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is A
The very first line of the passage makes it clear that “Alfred Bernhard Nobel, a Swedish inventor and philanthropist, bequeathed most of his vast fortune in trust as a fund from which annual prizes could be awarded to individuals and organizations”. It means that he left money for the prizes. Hence option A is correct.
Refer the Topic Wise Question for Verbal Reasoning Aptitude
 Question 180
The untimely loss of life is a cause of serious global concern as thousands of people get killed ______ accidents every year while many other die____ diseases like cardiovascular disease, cancer, etc
 A from, from B from, of C in, of D during, from
Question 180 Explanation:

The untimely loss of life is a cause of serious global concern as thousands of people get killed in accidents every year while many other die of diseases like cardiovascular disease, cancer, etc.

Hence, option(C) is the most appropriate one.

 Question 181
He was not only accused of theft ___ of conspiracy.
 A but even B rather than C rather D but also
Question 181 Explanation:
'Not only' is used with 'but also' to add emphasis when writing about two related things. For example:
He was not only accused of theft but also of conspiracy.
 Question 182

Select the word that fits the analogy:

Explicit: Implicit:: Express: ______

 A Impress B Compress C Suppress D Repress
Question 182 Explanation:

Explicit and Implicit are Opposites and Express and Repress are also Opposites.

Explicit: Implicit:: Express: Repress

 Question 183

The Canadian constitution requires that equal importance be given to English and French. Last year. Air Canada lost a lawsuit, and had to pay a six-figure fine to a French-speaking couple after they filed complaints about formal in-flight announcements in English lasting 15 seconds, as opposed to informal 5 second messages in French.

The French-speaking couple were upset at

 A the English announcements being clearer than the French ones. B the in-flight announcements being made in English. C the English announcements being longer than the French ones. D equal importance being given to English and French.
Question 183 Explanation:

The passage clearly mentions that the English announcements were formal and lasted15 seconds, while the French announcements were informal and lasted just 5 seconds.

The French-speaking couple were upset at that the English announcements were longer than the French ones.

 Question 184
A superadditive function  f (.) satisfies the following property
f(x1 + x2) >= f(x1) + f(x2)
Which of the following functions is a superadditive function for x > 1?
 A √X B ex C e-x D 1/x
Question 184 Explanation:
f(x1 + x2) >= f(x1) + f(x2)

Option(A): √X
For x1=2 x2=3
f(x) = √X
f(2+3) >= f(2) + f(3)
f(5) >= f(2) + f(3)
√5 >= √2 + √3
2.236 >= 1.414 + 1.732
2.236 >= 3.146 which is false

Option(B): ex
For x1=2 x2=3
f(x) = ex
f(2+3) >= f(2) + f(3)
f(5) >= f(2) + f(3)
Let take e=2
f(25) > f(22) + f(23)
25 > 22+23 (True)
Hence, ex is super additive function (e>1)

Option(C): e-x
e-(x1+x2) <= e-x1 + e-x2; for x>1
Shown in above
2(-5) > 2-2 + 2-3 (False)

Option(D): 1/x
1/(x1 + x2) <= 1/x1 +1/x2;f or x>1
 Question 185

The global financial crisis in 2008 is considered to be the most serious worldwide financial crisis, which started with the sub-prime lending crisis in USA in 2007. The subprime lending crisis led to the banking crisis in 2008 with the collapse of Lehman Brothers in 2008. The sub-prime lending refers to the provision of loans to those borrowers who may have difficulties in repaying loans, and it arises because of excess liquidity following the East Asian crisis.

Which one of the following sequences shows the correct precedence as per the given passage?

 A Subprime lending crisis → global financial crisis → banking crisis → East Asian crisis. B East Asian crisis → subprime lending crisis → banking crisis → global financial crisis. C Banking crisis → subprime lending crisis → global financial crisis → East Asian crisis. D Global financial crisis → East Asian crisis → banking crisis → subprime lending crisis.
Question 185 Explanation:
The paragraph clearly mentions that the East Asian crisis led to the sub-prime lending crisis which led to the banking crisis which led to the global financial crisis.
Hence, option(B) is the correct answer
 Question 186
It is quarter past three in your watch. The angle between the hour hand and the minute hand
 A 0° B 2.5° C 15° D 7.5°
Question 186 Explanation:

We can apply the below formula to solve these type of questions

The angle between the hands of a clock at any point of time in a day. (h is hours, and m is minutes, in the 12-hour format) is given by θ = |30h - (11m)/2|
Here h = 3 and m = 15
θ = |30(3) - (11(15))/2|
= 90 - 82.5
= 7.5°

Alternative method:
1H = 360/12 = (30)°
15M = (1/4)H = (30)°/4 = 7.5°

 Question 187
A circle with center O is shown in the figure. A rectangle PQRS of the maximum possible area is inscribed in the circle. If the radius of the circle is a, then the area of the shaded portion is________
 A πa2 - 3a2 B πa2 - 2a2 C πa2 - a2 D πa2 - √2a2
Question 187 Explanation:

For the rectangle to have the maximum possible area, when both sides are of equal length, as shown in below figure:

Using Pythagoras theorem, we get
x2 + x2 = (2a)2
2x2 =4a2
x = √2a

∴ Maximum area of rectangle A = x2 = 2a2

We know that Area of the circle = πa2

Area of shaded portion = (Area of the circle) – (Area of the rectangle)
= πa2 - 2a2

 Question 188
a, b, c are real numbers. The quadratic equation ax2 – bx + c = 0 has equal roots, which is β, then.
 A β2 != 4ac B β3 = bc/(2a2) C β = b/a D β2 = ac
Question 188 Explanation:

In general for a quadratic equation ax2 – bx + c = 0. the Sum of roots = -b/a and Product of roots = -c/a

Since both the roots are equal, the roots are β, β. According to the question

• Sum of roots = 2β = -(-b/a) = b/a --- eq(1)
• product of roots = β2 = c/a ---eq(2)

eq(1) * eq(2), then we get.
2β * β2 = (b/a) * (c/a)
3 = bc/a2
β3 = bc/2a2

 Question 189
The following figure shows the data of students enrolled in 5 years (2014 to 2018) for two schools P and Q. During this period, the ratio of the average number of the students enrolled in school P to the average of the difference of the number of students enrolled in schools P and Q is _______
 A 23 : 8 B 8 : 23 C 23 : 31 D 31 : 23
Question 189 Explanation:

From the given figure,

Number of students enrolled in school P from 2014 to 2018
= (3+5+5+6+4) * 1000
= 23000

∴ The average number of students enrolled in school P = (23000/5)   --eq(1)

Number of students enrolled in school Q from 2014 to 2018
= (4+7+8+7+5) * 1000
= 31000

∴ The average number of students enrolled in school Q = (31000/5)

∴ Average difference of the number of students enrolled in schools
P and Q = (31000/5) - (23000/5) = (8000/5)    -- eq(2)

From eq(1) and eq(2)
The required ratio = (23000/5)/(8000/5) = 23/8 = 23:8

 Question 190
Mr. X speaks ________ Japanese ________ Chinese.
 A neither/or B either/nor C neither/nor D also/but
Question 190 Explanation:

Mr. X speaks neither Japanese nor Chinese.

We can use Either/Or, (or) Neither/Nor constructor. Also/but makes no sense.

Therefore, option(C) is the correct answer.

 Question 191
A sum of money is to be distributed among P, Q, R, and S in the proportion 5 : 2: 4 : 3, respectively. If R gets ₹ 1000 more than S, what is the share of Q (in ₹)?
 A 500 B 1000 C 1500 D 2000
Question 191 Explanation:

Let the share of P,Q,R,S = 5x, 2x, 4x, 3x

It is given that R gets ₹ 1000 more than S
4x-3x  = 1000
∴ x = 1000

Hence, The share of Q = 2* 1000 = 2000

 Question 192

A trapezium has vertices marked as P, Q, R and S (in that order anticlockwise). The side PQ is parallel to side SR. Further, it is given that, PQ = 11 cm, QR = 4 cm, RS = 6 cm and SP = 3 cm.

What is the shortest distance between PQ and SR (in cm)?

 A 1.8 B 2.4 C 4.2 D 5.76
Question 192 Explanation:
 Question 193
The figure shows a grid formed by a collection of unit squares. The unshaded unit square in the grid represents a hole.

What is the maximum number of squares without a “hole in the interior” that can be formed within the 4 × 4 grid using the unit squares as building blocks?
 A 15 B 20 C 21 D 26
Question 193 Explanation:
Number of squares = 16
Number of squares without hole = 4 * 4 -1 = 16 - 1 = 15
Therefore, the number of 1 * 1 squares without holes = 15
Thus, the number of 2 * 2 squares without holes = 5
Hence, Total number of squares = 15+5 = 20
 Question 194
An art gallery engages a security guard to ensure that the items displayed are protected. The diagram below represents the plan of the gallery where the boundary walls are opaque. The location the security guard posted is identified such that all the inner space (shaded region in the plan) of the gallery is within the line of sight of the security guard.

If the security guard does not move around the posted location and has a 360º view, which one of the following correctly represents the set of ALL possible locations among the locations P, Q, R and S, where the security guard can be posted to watch over the entire inner space of the gallery.
 A P and Q B Q C Q and S D R and S
Question 194 Explanation:
• If a person will stand on ‘P’ then he/she can’t see the visibility side of R and vice versa.
• But if the security guard posted at Q and S can watch the entire space of the gallery.
 Question 195
Mosquitoes pose a threat to human health. Controlling mosquitoes using chemicals may have undesired consequences. In Florida, authorities have used genetically modified mosquitoes to control the overall mosquito population. It remains to be seen if this novel approach has unforeseen consequences.
Which one of the following is the correct logical inference based on the information in the above passage?
 A Using chemicals to kill mosquitoes is better than using genetically modified mosquitoes because genetic engineering is dangerous B Using genetically modified mosquitoes is better than using chemicals to kill mosquitoes because they do not have any side effects C Both using genetically modified mosquitoes and chemicals have undesired consequences and can be dangerous D Using chemicals to kill mosquitoes may have undesired consequences but it is not clear if using genetically modified mosquitoes has any negative consequence
Question 195 Explanation:

In option (A) it is mentioned that “genetically modified mosquitoes are better than using chemicals to kill mosquitoes” which is not mentioned in the given passage and that’s why this option is eliminated.

The paragraph does not claim that “Using genetically modified mosquitoes does not have any side effects", hence, choice (B) is eliminated.

The paragraph does not categorically state that “using genetically modified mosquitoes and chemicals” are dangerous, hence choice (C) is eliminated.

The paragraph states that using chemicals to eliminate mosquitoes may not be the best thing to do, and nothing about genetically modified mosquitoes can be said for sure, as of now, hence choice (D) is the answer.

 Question 196
Consider the following inequalities.
•  2x − 1 > 7
• 2x − 9 < 1
Which one of the following expressions below satisfies the above two inequalities?
 A x <= − 4 B − 4 < x <= 4 C 4 < x < 5 D x >= 5
Question 196 Explanation:
First inequality:
2x − 1 > 7
2x > 7 + 1
2x > 8
x > 4

Second inequality:
2x − 9 < 1
2x < 1 + 9
2x < 10
x < 5

From the above two inequality:
∴ 4 < x < 5
 Question 197
Four points P(0, 1), Q(0, − 3), R(− 2, − 1), and S(2, − 1) represent the vertices of a quadrilateral. What is the area enclosed by the quadrilateral?
 A 4 B 4√2 C 8 D 8√2
Question 197 Explanation:
 Question 198
In a class of five students P, Q, R, S and T, only one student is known to have copied in the exam. The disciplinary committee has investigated the situation and recorded the statements from the students as given below.
• Statement of P: R has copied in the exam.
• Statement of Q: S has copied in the exam.
• Statement of R: P did not copy in the exam.
• Statement of S: Only one of us is telling the truth.
• Statement of T: R is telling the truth.
The investigating team had authentic information that S never lies. Based on the information given above, the person who has copied in the exam is
 A R B P C Q D T
Question 198 Explanation:

The investigating team has authentic information that S never lies. This means S always speaks the truth.

Hence, the statement of all other students will be wrong.

• Statement of P: R did not copy in the exam.
• Statement of Q: S did not copy in the exam.
• Statement of R: P copied in the exam.
• Statement of T: R did not tell the truth
Hence, P copied in the exam.
 Question 199
Consider the following square with the four corners and the center marked as P, Q, R, S and T respectively. Let X, Y and Z represent the following operations:
• X: rotation of the square by 180 degree with respect to the S-Q axis.
• Y: rotation of the square by 180 degree with respect to the P-R axis.
• Z: rotation of the square by 90 degree clockwise with respect to the axis perpendicular, going into the screen and passing through the point T.
Consider the following three distinct sequences of operation (which are applied in the left to right order).
1.  XYZZ
2.  XY
3. ZZZZ
Which one of the following statements is correct as per the information provided above?
 A The sequence of operations (1) and (2) are equivalent B The sequence of operations (1) and (3) are equivalent C The sequence of operations (2) and (3) are equivalent D The sequence of operations (1), (2) and (3) are equivalent
Question 199 Explanation:
There are 199 questions to complete.